Phoenicians, just like Thracians, or Gallic people or whatever other generic name, was used to describe various people living within an area. Phoenicia, Thrace and so on. It wasn't considered to be a collective nation of tribes. There sure was a few of them, but Phoenician did not refer to them solely. Greeks used regional adjectives for all 'barbarian' nations they met except Egypt which they considered a nation or some Empires, who were under the control of an emperor or an origin state.
As you can see in the text I quoted above, Herodotus viewed Phoenicians as a people with a common origin story in having migrated from the Erythraean Sea(the Persian Gulf), rather than as separate peoples living in the same area. Like the Greeks they were often divided into city states when they weren't vassals to foreign empires but the surviving texts point to a similar language.
Also, I find it odd that there's consensus belief that there existed a 'phoenician alphabet' and 'phoenician language', but no one really has ever found any 'phoenician literature', or even just something more than a couple of phrases...
See the Ahiram sarcophagus, Çineköy inscription,
Eshmunazar II sarcophagus, Pyrgi Tablets, etc.
As is the case for almost all Middle Eastern records that survive they are stone inscriptions or clay tablets. Litterature, if it existed, could have been written on material that doesn't survive without being repeatedly copied as is the case for most surviving Greek literature.
But when anyone suggests that archaeological evidence of Linear B, Cypro-Minoan, Cypriot Syllabary and others have been connected to Linear A, just like Evans did to an extent, it's crazy conspiracies... We have to accept that Linear B died, that the Cypriot Syllabary was restricted to Cyprus of all places since we accept that it had a continuous timeline until the Koine from 1100 BCE and that the rest of the Greeks had forgotten any earlier form of writing and had to import it from a place they had settled centuries earlier
The complexity of Linear B, as with cuneiform and hieroglyphs, limited its use to a specialist class of scribes. The archeological evidence from mainland Greece points to the destruction or abandonment of almost all Mycenaean palace centers by 1000 BC, a considerable drop in population and prosperity and small villages as the new polity. This social change would leave little employment for scribes in Linear B and if the occupation survived it was to such a small extent that no further works by them survive.
... Makes perfect sense, doesn't it? And it also makes perfect sense that the modern Greek alphabet and the Linear B are not related when in fact their letters are pretty similar altogether. We hate myths, but let's invent one for the Phoenicians who no one really knew who they were. Even with Carthage who've had something to offer, there's no origin stories of what their ancestors were like, but sure, let's make our own conclusions and cast away anyone who disagrees...
The development of the Phoenician alphabet can be traced back through the proto-Sinaitic script to Egyptian hieroglyphs. The first known text written in it is the Ahiram sarcophagus which predates any Greek use of an alphabet by centuries. Even the Greeks themselves knew that they got the alphabet from the Phoenicians (Herodotus again):
"The Phoenicians who came with Cadmus—amongst whom were the Gephyraei—introduced into Greece, after their settlement in the country, a number of accomplishments, of which the most important was writing, an art till then, I think, unknown to the Greeks. At first they [the Phoenicians] used the same characters as all the other Phoenicians, but as time went on, and they changed their language, they also changed the shape of their letters. At that period most of the Greeks in the neighbourhood were Ionians; they were taught these letters by the Phoenicians and adopted them, with a few alterations, for their own use, continuing to refer to them as the Phoenician characters—as was only right, as the Phoenicians had introduced them. The Ionians also call paper 'skins'—a survival from antiquity when paper was hard to get, and they did actually use goat and sheep skins to write on. Indeed, even today many foreign peoples use this material. In the temple of Ismenian Apollo at Theba in Boeotia I have myself seen cauldrons with inscriptions cut on them in Cadmean characters—most of them not very different from the Ionian."
Even the so called 'Sea Peoples' are considered to be of Phoenician descent. Just because it'd be cool I guess, since there's zero evidence on those people whatsoever.
The Phoenician culture predates the arrival of the "Sea Peoples" in Canaan by centuries. The Philistines to the south of them are commonly viewed as candidates for the Sea Peoples and there is even some evidence of them being Mycenaean.
It'd be cooler if you'd find the original text of Herodotus, not just a translations. Things get lost in translations.
I don't speak classical Greek so I am forced to rely on english translations. If you have contradictory translations I would be interested.
Can you tell me how the Greeks called the Israelites/Hebrews and the Canaanites as well? Wasn't it...Phoenicians as well? (Sure, possibility Phoenicians and Canaanites were the same, but Israelites? Don't think so.)
Hebrew is in the same Northwest Semitic subgroup of the language family as Phoenician so the cultures were related but distinct. The most common modern theory is that Israelite culture emerged among those Canaanites that settled in the inland region following the Bronze Age collapse. The Phoenicians along the coast to the northwest survived the collapse relatively intact.
Herodotus doesn't mention the Israelites at all and I can't find any example of him or any other Greek source referring to them as Phoenician. As minor inland kingdoms under the rule of Persia they would be of little interest to the Greeks compared to the Phoenicians who traded with them and competed as colonizers of the Mediterranean.