Looking at some of the later scenarios it appears that inital religions in provinces will always be the same regardless of example.
Take for example Britain in 1776- lancashire and Yorkshire are both catholics- this would be true for the reformation period, but by then the whole of England was almost religiously homogenous. Is my suspiciion correct, or am I seeing shapes in clouds again?
Take for example Britain in 1776- lancashire and Yorkshire are both catholics- this would be true for the reformation period, but by then the whole of England was almost religiously homogenous. Is my suspiciion correct, or am I seeing shapes in clouds again?