No, actually I have alot of conflicting sources. I am rather sure tho that the production of the D was finished in 1938. In Jan 1939 the E started.
So its hard to say depending when this war starts how many are made, combat ready etc etc.
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So its hard to say depending when this war starts how many are made, combat ready etc etc.
Well, in general mark D was produced in small quantities. Probably because it was a pre-war model. Emil became the standard one when the real war commenced
You said all that is needed to stop them is a local police force which is ridiculous. A loose group of tanks with a cavalry brigade would overhelm your police force. Something the Czechs had available. Then suddenly the invasion of France was relevant and someone brought up 38t tanks for no reason.
I cant compute that tbh.
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More than 600 tho.Well, in general mark D was produced in small quantities. Probably because it was a pre-war model. The mark E became the standard one when the real war commenced
But not till the spring of 1938. Some were sent to Spain though.
Well both is out of the question after the Treaty of Locarno
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Locarno_Treaties#Goals
The borders of France, Belgium and the western border of Germany were guaranteed by the UK and Italy. So even IF France would suddenly do something that they in history did not do (remember the UK and France did agree to let Germany peacefully have the Sudentenland) but say France attacks the western border of Germany when the Czechs refuse to hand over parts of their country - then suddenly we would be in a reversed WW1 situation (where the UK attacked Germany for the violation of Belgiums guaranteed borders) and the UK and Italy would try to stop France from breaking Locarno and Germany would suddenly be the unjustly attacked...
And Hungary does not border Poland, but it does border Czechoslovakia that contained a lot of land that before WW1 was part of Hungary and in that land parts in which hungarians were the largest minority
Just like Germany after WW1 Hungary tried to revise the conditions of the peace treaty (that in part were it direct violation of Wilsons 14 articles) and just like Germany at first they could not due to the "Little Entente" and their alliance with the western allies.
Only after Germany did make the first steps (Rhineland, Treaty of Locarno, better relations with Italy that before had guaranteed Austria and then switched over to allow Germany to have Austria without problems) Hungary could hope to revise their borders too. And only a month after the Munich agreement Hungary accepted the First Vienna Award in which Germany&Italy mediated the border conflicts by handing over some CSR parts to Hungary
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Vienna_Award
So, yes - IF the UK&France agree to the Treaty of Munich as historically and as historically won’t move because they guarantee Germanys western border, and then the CSR refuses and defies Germany, then Hungary would try to take advantage of that regardless of what side Poland is on.
The reason I brought up the Pz 38 t was that
1) yes, the czech Pz38 t was a good tank comparable to the german PzIII tank and better than the first german Pz I or Pz II tanks that still were the majority of the german tanks in 1939,
2) yes, the czech Pz 35 t and Pz 38 t tanks were helpful for the german army both in the Poland and France campaigns to fill out their tank divisions, but
3) no, the Pz38t (as the better tank compared to the Pz 35t) would be no use whatsoever to the Czechs in Octobre 1938 (in an assumed ahistorically by the czechs refused Munich agreement) against Germany, because in 1938 the Pz38t was still in the development phase and not yet produced. Which means the czechs would have not been able to use the Pz 38 t in 1938 against Germany, despite that being the good czech tank that has deserved a honourable mention in WW2 history.
But they eventually DoWed Germany, even after Munich...
However, with Czechoslovak-Polish alliance there would... not have been a Munich as we know it. I am pretty sure. In such case the Allies would have felt much stronger in bargain with Hitler.
And Hungary does not border Poland, but it does border Czechoslovakia that contained a lot of land that before WW1 was part of Hungary and in that land parts in which hungarians were the largest minority
Just like Germany after WW1 Hungary tried to revise the conditions of the peace treaty (that in part were it direct violation of Wilsons 14 articles) and just like Germany at first they could not due to the "Little Entente" and their alliance with the western allies.
Only after Germany did make the first steps (Rhineland, Treaty of Locarno, better relations with Italy that before had guaranteed Austria and then switched over to allow Germany to have Austria without problems) Hungary could hope to revise their borders too. And only a month after the Munich agreement Hungary accepted the First Vienna Award in which Germany&Italy mediated the border conflicts by handing over some CSR parts to Hungary
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Vienna_Award
So, yes - IF the UK&France agree to the Treaty of Munich as historically and as historically won’t move because they guarantee Germanys western border, and then the CSR refuses and defies Germany, then Hungary would try to take advantage of that regardless of what side Poland is on.
Well, the real life is not a HoI game with nice maps attached... In fact Hungary was not prepared for a war, did not want to participate in a war again and especially on German side. Again. After Munich they just took opportunity for some land grab without a single shot of a bullet, like Poland. Later they just had no choice but to join Germany (or to be rolled by them like their neighbours).
German army was quite vulnerable to casualties as military history visualised said that during the start of operation Barbarossa, nearly all German divisions was considered suited for offensive operations (the highest level), one year after only eight or so divisions was given that level and waste majority of the divisions was considered only suited for defensive operations.
This should mean if Germany would have to fight the Czechoslovakia and Poland in 1938, yes they would probably win but they would be significantly worse of and most of the industry base of Czechoslovakia would likely be destroyed instead of supporting the German army. This in turn may mean no victory against France or no Barbarossa so Soviet would likely get much better off in such case and avoid much of the destruction they suffered during ww2.
This should mean if Germany would have to fight the Czechoslovakia and Poland in 1938, yes they would probably win but they would be significantly worse of and most of the industry base of Czechoslovakia would likely be destroyed instead of supporting the German army. This in turn may mean no victory against France or no Barbarossa so Soviet would likely get much better off in such case and avoid much of the destruction they suffered during ww2.
I do not think that the UK and France were afraid of Hitler at that point in time in 1938. They appeased Germany because they did not want to even risk a WW2 and they found good relations with Germany more important than those with France’s "cordon sanitaire" whose prime reason for existence was to check in the soviets. Before 1939 the UK even sympathized with german revisionism to get all germans into Germany as long as it happened orderly and by negotiations and not war.
When they did attack Hitler it was AFTER he started to break treaties - as in he took the Sudetenland according to the negotiations which was quite o.k. with UK&France, but then occupied Prague and the rest of Bohemia while creating a puppet state in Slovakia and then threatening war on Poland. Only after that did the UK change it’s policy to guarantee the existance of Poland and then actually went to war at a time where few people believed they would actually do it this time.
Hungary was in war even before Germany again after WW1. Hungary (under the communist rule of Bela Kun) invaded the CSR and occupied Slovakia/Upper Hungary until 1919
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hungarian–Czechoslovak_War
hoping for soviet aid that never materialized. Two additional month the hungarian-romanian war took
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hungarian–Romanian_War
and romainan troops occupied eastern Hungary until 1920.
So Hungary was very interested in revising the new borders after WW1 and just waiting for an opportunity to do so without any major power intervening. Which is exactly the situation after Locarno and Munich where the western allies have practically left the CSR and Poland on their own for a while and Germany and Italy mediate the hungarian demands on the CSR.
And even in the Vienna Award negotiations Hungary wanted at first to go beyond the german suggestion for a new border
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Vienna_Award
To be fair Austria-Hungary survived nearly two years of being savaged by Russia and limping along for 2 more of continuous blockade and war before failing. If Czechoslovakia manages that, they're doing better than I expect
Czechoslovakia is not the USSR. The czechoslovak army was definitely not the soviet army, not in size, not in armament, not in determination
What I tried to say is that every resource Germany lose because of a war against czechoslovakia will mean less damage to the Soviet during the German-Soviet war.
Not exactly.
Locarno was perceived as a humilation in Poland indeed (caused the fall of the cabinet), and I suppose it applied to Czechoslovakia either. BTW, it should get politicians of those countries to think about, a bit deeper... But, it also contained Polish-French and Czechoslovak-French mutual assistance treaties. So France generally did not change its policy, it was rather a British turn toward German interests.
Germany did not start to breach treaties in 1938, but in 1936 already, when they militarized Rheinland. BTW, it was actually the best moment to stop them, but, as you said the Allies did not want to risk a war. However they found out what's going on and how unprepared they are, so and the later appeasement policy - not only because they were afraid of war but actually to buy a time. Cynically at the expense of their eastern allies...
That's something different. Czechoslovakia ceased to exist so they tried to regain as much as possible. Quite different situation than a major war. It would have been suicidal for Hungary to join the Germans building Central European Empire. They would have been just the next to be swallowed.
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In reality, Mussolini stayed neutral until the defeat of France was assured. Germany getting more enemies would hardly entice him nor other countries to throw their lot in with Berlin. OTOH, with such power arrayed against Germany, there is the very real danger that some other minor will come in to be seated at the victors' table.
Austrian government in exile, demanding upper Bavaria as reparations? Poland of course, upper Silesia and Mazuria. Lithuania, chunks of East Prussia.
Hey, having no treaty of Rapallo with the Germany might not be all bad in that scenario after all.
Not exactly neutral. The "Stresa Front" of UK/France/Italy to maintain the treaties of Versailles and of Locarno was already dead by the western allies willing to leave Austria to Germany (something Benito objected to for a long time in fear of rising german power in Europe and South Tyrol with it’s german minority in the north of Italy) and Italys ambition in Ethiopia.
The "Pact of Steel" was signed before the start of historical WW2 and - on paper - made Italy and Germany allies, despite Italy not yet being ready for war.
Sure but considering he claimed that local police can refuse them it is rather irrelevant if they bring 35t or 38t tanks.
Police is armed with pistols and maybe a few rifles at this time.
Wait, was there a Austrian government in exile, never heard of that before.