In 1939 the British Empire numbered 551,419,825. The French Colonial Empire numbered 114,386,572. Germany numbered 86,755,281, including 7,380,000 Czechs who wouldn't fight for them. Was there simply no way for the British or French to bring this manpower superiority to bear? The British and French did use Colonial troops, but in relatively limited numbers. Would it not have been possible to use far more of them in 1940?