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Mar 29, 2003
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The subject tells it all. In real history there was a lot of example when one dynasty, and sometimes even one king, were controlling more than one kingdom. Will that be implemented in CK? E.g. You are king of Poland and Hungary, and your brother king of Bohemia (and if so, will you controll him directly or just have an ally there?)
 
Well that you or someone of your family can access other thrones is possible, if you will be able to control something that is not your Head of Family is not known by me
 
What about following situation:

X is head of the house. X and Y are brothers and kings of I and J, respectively. Then X dies childless.

Which of the following is true:
1) End of the game, since there is no son of X which could replace him
2) Y became new head of the house. You start to controll him and became king of both I and J
3) Y became new head of the house. You are king of J. I get new king, although you have claim on it's throne.

Can you decide that you _WONT_ have any baby? Not talking about just avoiding marriage, but just became saint-untouchable and deciding that you won't have any children for good of the family? Or driving to crusades for years to come and not having occasion to spend much time with your wife...

Or having children is just random: you have wife, so there is XX chances that she will be pregnant. Wonder if other realia, like wife dying while giving birth, your children dying in young age etc will be implemented...
 
Well Y will inherit the Kingdom of X, you will play Y from now on, well maybe you can decide to abdicate one of the thrones to one of your sons as Y or maybe as X you had decided that one of your nephews shall inherit you :p
 
Well the Emperor was King of 3 separate kingdoms (Germany, Italy, & Burgundy), so I assume its possible.

The King of Hungary became also King of Croatia-Dalmatia in the 12th c. Werent there simultaneous Kings of Denmark & Norway during the period as well?
 
Txini: Would Alfonso the Battler count? Was he ever crowned King of Castille or did he ever use the title?
 
Slightly off topic, but this reminded me of a situation where it occurred. What about divorce? My example is when the French King divorced the Queen (?) of Aquitaine, and the English King married her. How will the game handle devorces, and what will the effects be? The English King on two thrones puts it back on topic btw:D
 
Why is nobody ever called anything great like Alfonso the Battler nowadays? he would get my vote every general election.

Out of period but Philip II could have inherited from his father the whole of the HRE and Spain etc. Couldnt the game reflect this very medieval notion of empire building and a united christendom? after all the HRE claimed to be temporal lords of all christendom in the west.
 
My friends and I give modern rulers those kinds of names. Things like George the Dimwitted, and William the Horny:D Not exactly as cool as Alfonso the Battler, but we thought the names fit them well. Have a whole list of them for US presidents if you would like to hear some more
 
Originally posted by BarbarossaHRE
Txini: Would Alfonso the Battler count? Was he ever crowned King of Castille or did he ever use the title?

Yes, he was infact King of Leon and Castilla, both kingdoms had different Courts till the last reunification with Fernando III the Saint.
 
Originally posted by Helium Hound
Slightly off topic, but this reminded me of a situation where it occurred. What about divorce? My example is when the French King divorced the Queen (?) of Aquitaine, and the English King married her. How will the game handle devorces, and what will the effects be? The English King on two thrones puts it back on topic btw:D

Eleanor's ancestors, the Williams of Poitou, won the fight for the old Duchy of Aquitaine (10th c.), then added the Duchy of Gascony. So while her lands were vast, they didnt form a Kingdom. By Eleanor's time, the whole complex (2 Duchies+County of Poitou) was referred to simply as the "Duchy of Aquitaine".

Since these lands were hereditary, Louis was only Duke while married to her. When she married Henry II, he became Duke; and unlike Louis, he used force to make his title a reality.
 
Originally posted by Txini
Yes, he was infact King of Leon and Castilla, both kingdoms had different Courts till the last reunification with Fernando III the Saint.

So he was King of Aragon (by heredity) & Castille (by marriage), but both kingdoms retained their own organs of government. Should be possible in the game, then.
 
Originally posted by BarbarossaHRE
So he was King of Aragon (by heredity) & Castille (by marriage), but both kingdoms retained their own organs of government. Should be possible in the game, then.

no, he was King of Leon by inheritance and King of Castilla by the same :D

He inherited Leon from daddy that divided his crowns between his sons, and after the death of Sancho of Castilla in Castilian-Leonesse war, Alfonso rose to the throne of Castilla.
 
Someone with knowledge answer this question please..I have been wondering about this as well...
 
well you can control every country ruled by main player, and other members, don't know, only know that if someone of your dinasty reach to control eclessiastical state or Chivlaric Order, you would be able to control them during his life, so maybe is the same with countries of other members of the family, lots of micromanagement if you are able to gain lots of thrones in my opinion.
 
Originally posted by Txini
no, he was King of Leon by inheritance and King of Castilla by the same :D

He inherited Leon from daddy that divided his crowns between his sons, and after the death of Sancho of Castilla in Castilian-Leonesse war, Alfonso rose to the throne of Castilla.

Woops, we're talking about 2 different Alfonsos then. :eek:

I meant Alfonso I "el Batallador" (doesnt el Batallador=the Battler?), King of Aragon & Navarre (1104-1134). Married Urraca and became King of Castille-Leon as well(1109). Captured Saragossa (1118), etc., but renounced his claim to Castille-Leon in favor of Alfonso VII.

I think you were referring to Alfonso VI "el Bravo", who was Urraca's father, right? If so, there's 2 examples of a King ruling 2 separate kingdoms simultaneously.
 
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Originally posted by BarbarossaHRE
Woops, we're talking about 2 different Alfonsos then. :eek:

I meant Alfonso I "el Batallador" (doesnt el Batallador=the Battler?), King of Aragon & Navarre (1104-1134). Married Urraca and became King of Castille-Leon as well(1109). Captured Saragossa (1118), etc., but renounced his claim to Castille-Leon in favor of Alfonso VII.

I think you were referring to Alfonso VI "el Bravo", who was Urraca's father, right? If so, there's 2 examples of a King ruling 2 separate kingdoms simultaneously.

Yes, my error, but well he was only King consort of Urraca till 1114, not real ruler, Urraca was the ruler in all ways and was succeded by her son with her first husband(Raymond of Burgundy) Alfonso VII
 
Originally posted by Txini
Yes, my error, but well he was only King consort of Urraca till 1114, not real ruler, Urraca was the ruler in all ways and was succeded by her son with her first husband(Raymond of Burgundy) Alfonso VII

So he wasnt ever crowned King of Castille-Leon? Did he ever call himself that?

I just realized that even if he didnt, he's still a good example since he was king of Aragon AND Navarre! :p
 
Originally posted by BarbarossaHRE
I just realized that even if he didnt, he's still a good example since he was king of Aragon AND Navarre! :p

That's even funnier, as his cousins kill their brother the King and althought he was the son of a Bastard of Sancho III of Navarra, Aragon, Castilla and Leon, he was the one who inherited Navarran throne(think it was pacted that way with his Navarran cousins) instead of his Navarran cousins or Castillian-Leonese Cousins :p
 
Heh, so in short nobody has an idea and we all are just guessing?