Specifically if the Spartan command executed the Athenian top-general following the destruction of their fleet at Aigos Potamoi (and pretty much the end of the Peloponnesian war).
Following their capture, quite a number of Athenians were executed, due to their own war-crimes, but most notably it seems due to a horrible law passed in Athens to effectively allow the chopping off of one arm of any POW's (iirc to deter mercenaries flocking to Sparta as ship crews). Given this was argued to be a crime against Hellenism, the mass-execution was presented as a reaction to that.
But i am mostly interested in whether Lysander, head of the spartan fleet officers (or if not him, some another Spartan officer) merely asked the Athenian general (Philocles) if he has anything to say to defend himself against the war-crime accusation, and then just cut his throat (without waiting for anything to be said). Or if there was a sort of reply by Philocles, which was followed by the execution.
I tend to find the first option more poetic (cause it would signify that while he was asked to make an apology, he was already deemed as guilty anyway, so was asked merely so that it can be further highlighted that he would now be killed without anyone waiting to hear from him).
Anyway, it seems that (centuries later) there is a very different (and probably made-up) account by Plutarch, where Philocles gives some reply, but this isn't reliable. Anyone ever read anything about this point in the Hellenica?
I think that the bit there, translated to english is:
"Many other accusations were made against the Athenians, and it was finally decided to kill all those of the prisoners who were Athenians, with the exception of Adeimantos, who alone had attacked the decree in the Assembly about the cutting off of hands. He was, however, charged by some with betraying the ships. Philokles, who had thrown overboard the Corinthians and Andrians, was first asked by Lysander what he thought he deserved for having begun uncustomary and illegal actions against the Greeks, and then had his throat cut."
Thanks for any help!
Following their capture, quite a number of Athenians were executed, due to their own war-crimes, but most notably it seems due to a horrible law passed in Athens to effectively allow the chopping off of one arm of any POW's (iirc to deter mercenaries flocking to Sparta as ship crews). Given this was argued to be a crime against Hellenism, the mass-execution was presented as a reaction to that.
But i am mostly interested in whether Lysander, head of the spartan fleet officers (or if not him, some another Spartan officer) merely asked the Athenian general (Philocles) if he has anything to say to defend himself against the war-crime accusation, and then just cut his throat (without waiting for anything to be said). Or if there was a sort of reply by Philocles, which was followed by the execution.
I tend to find the first option more poetic (cause it would signify that while he was asked to make an apology, he was already deemed as guilty anyway, so was asked merely so that it can be further highlighted that he would now be killed without anyone waiting to hear from him).
Anyway, it seems that (centuries later) there is a very different (and probably made-up) account by Plutarch, where Philocles gives some reply, but this isn't reliable. Anyone ever read anything about this point in the Hellenica?
I think that the bit there, translated to english is:
"Many other accusations were made against the Athenians, and it was finally decided to kill all those of the prisoners who were Athenians, with the exception of Adeimantos, who alone had attacked the decree in the Assembly about the cutting off of hands. He was, however, charged by some with betraying the ships. Philokles, who had thrown overboard the Corinthians and Andrians, was first asked by Lysander what he thought he deserved for having begun uncustomary and illegal actions against the Greeks, and then had his throat cut."
Thanks for any help!
