To my best understanding of history, Hungary did not have enough autonomy in 1836 to be accurately represented as a subject state at that time. You could make an argument for it after Austria became A-H but a very crucial part of A-H was Hungarian privileges and ambitions in regards to shared domination over other parts of the empire, so I'm not sure about that either. I'm of course open to changing my mind if there are compelling enough sources on the subject to indicate they should start as a subject.
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