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MattyG

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Mar 23, 2003
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Interregnum: Culture Definition and Discussion Thread

The issue of culture in Interregnum has been creating a lot of debate and problems for us of late. In each of the threads were it is being discussed, different solutions appear to be arising, or the debate is reaching similar conclusions. I'd like to think that we could come to a consensus about what culture actually represents in our mod and establish the guidelines for determining when a province/region/country deserves a distinct culture.

It is important to remember what culture affects in EU2, in order that we understand what it is supposed to represent. It's actually definied by not having the right culture:

+1 province revoltrisk
-30% province tax
-30% manpower

Significant issues, and what they principally represent are the economic and military support of a region, something that I believe are coordinated by a cultures elites. The culture of a province cannot - in the political realities of this era - be said to generally represent the 'common man'. Late 1700s enlightened Europe maybe. Non-feudal societies like Eire, maybe. But even in these situations, the common folk essentially take their orders from the society's elites. They may change those elites through revolution or election, but the ordering of a culture and the gaining of its economic and military cooperation is something the elites effect, not the common folk.

Most discussions about culture revolve around a number of key qualities, and these are:

Language
Law
Race
Social/Political structure
Historical biases

Let's look at each of these and consider their merits.


Language

I think that language is the one most commonly assumed to define culture in EU2. However, I believe that is actually the least significant of all the concepts. Let's consider French. In 1419 there is no French language. French as we know it today was formulated in the late 16th century as an administrative tool, a kind of 'esperanto' of the langues d'oil, the provincial dialects that existed in Gaul, especially east of Brittany and north of Limousin. French was not even spoken by most people in France until after 1918. On the other hand, Arabic was a comparatively more unified language that spread west with conquest. It's use as a definition for the cultures of those provinces works well enough, but I think it does so incidentally: these regions were also united by the religion and religious laws of the Qu'ran.

Law

Law is an important one, either customary law or written law. A society structures itself around law less than it does around language, both historically and in modern times as well. Canada is unified by the federal laws and charters, rather than by a common language. In fact, the laws and charters work hard to avoid monolingualism. Gaelic law in Eire and the Highlands of Scotland was quite detailed and a significant component of political structure of the country. While much of the regions of 'France' spoke different languages from one another, the similarities of customary law and the acceptance of a 'national' law help to define them as a nation. The common language came later.

Race

This is a tricky one. It's very hard to define and mostly plays out effectively when the comparisons are very significant, such as the Europeans vrs New World arena. But there are other components that might better define those differences and the issue of 'race' can get very messy. Which is not to say that we don't recognize racism as part of the EU2 world, but neither do we pander to it nor use it as a tool for structuring game play.

Social/Political Structure

This is a big one. Feudalism, nomadism, oligarchies, theocracies, tanistry and more. Some 'cultures' are have social structures that share more similarities than others. The feudal systems of England and France were very similar. When the English and the French conquer one another's lands, assimilating the ruling elites there and gaining their cooperation is much easier than, say, the English attempting to rule Eire; the Caliphate ruling the Bedouin; or the Teutonic Order ruling the Altai hordes.

Historical biases

Another tricky one. Traditional antipathies need to be considered, but we need to be careful that the ones which exist today might not have if history were different. But in Anatolia, for example, the pre-1419 repression by the Byzantines needs to be considered before we go giving Byzantium Turkish culture. Of course, this category is also linked fundamentally with Race.


Accordingly, I would rank the above elements in the following order, and remembering that I am referring principally to a regions elites, be they feudal inherited landowners, religious leaders or elected representatives:


1. Social/Political structure
2. Law
3. Language
4. Historical biases
5. Race

Applying this ranking system to the 'brythonic' culture being debated in this thread, it becomes clear that 'brythonic' is innapropriate as the culture to be used.

Brythonic is a family of languages in the provinces of Bretagne, Cornwall and Wales. Morbihan and Armor speak predominantly Gallo, one of the many langues d'oil. But they are unified by the similar customs, law and historical political structure of the Duchy of Brittany, something that is stronger in the Interregnum world than that of the Real World. Accordingly, for the Duchy of Brittany the more appropriate culture would be something like 'Breizh' indicating its distinctiveness from the 'French' lands to the west or the Inglis and Gaelic tothe north.

Not being part of Brittany and having a somewhat distinct social and legal structure, Wales ought not to have 'Breizh' culture at the start. However, it falls into the category of a province that might more easily convert its culture, given the many similarities with those Breizh provinces/Brittany. Equally, Armor and Morbihan would be more easily converted to French culture than, say, Bretagne or Anglia, and not principally because of Language differences, but because of limited dissimilarities of law and a certain degree of historical bias.

Then compare those provinces to Tunisia. The stark differences in law and social structure between Bretagne and Tunisia ought to ensure that Tunisa should never get Breizh culture and that Brittany can never get Arabic. Not unless the province is brutally gutten of its local population and the region supplanted with colonists from Brittany, effectively changing the principal race, law and social structure of the region, regardless of the fact that the remaining majority population would still remain Arabic speaking.

MattyG
 
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Maybe we should compare cultures on mathematical basis? Here you have 5 traits, that each culture have. We can say that "french" and "brythonic" by comparing their traits.

Social-Political Structure - clearly different.
Law - different.
Language - different.

We have 3 things that ARE different. That means we have different cultures.

Lets compare danish and swedish.

Law - they are united by both UoK laws and local laws, because they are quite similar.
Language - they are really close. Even now. I think they were even closer in 1419.
Social-Political Structure - same.

We have 4/5 same. That means this cultures are the same.

Now, what about welsh and brythonic?

Law - they have different laws, AFAIK.
Language - really close.
SP Structure - different.
There is nothing to be said about historical biases and race, they are not important here. But we have 2/1. No much, but Wales deserves new culture.
 
You have it.

Wales gets a different culture to the 'Breton' provinces.

Now let us see how mikl and bobtdwarf use such a model to make a definitive plan for Germany.

However, the mathematical model needs to be a little more diverse than one point for each category.

Language would be out of 2 points. 0 for dialect differences where essentially people can understand one another. 1 for closely related languages with stong differences, but where enough similarities exist to make communication difficult, but not impossible, such as the various langue d'oil and langues d'oc in Gaul. And 2 points for languages that are distinct, such as Chinese and Basque.

Social/Political structures might be more heavily weighted to reflect its greater importance. 3 Points, maximum, say.

Law also out of 3 points

Biases a single point.

Race also a single point.

So, the total points possible wouod be 10, and that 6 points are required to justify a separate culture. Let's test such a system on Portugal. Should it have its own culture?

Social structure? 0
Law? 1
Language? 1
Bias? 1
Race? 0

So, there may be some differences between the Portugese and the other Iberian sub-cultures that the Portugese themselves may feel strongly about, bu in the Interregnum world the differences are not significant enough to justify a culture separate to Iberian.
 
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But you have to remember different cultures precieve themselves differently, that is, Arabic speaking Muslims arent Arabs ethnically but are culturally and are spread everywhere around the Muslim world.
 
Calipah said:
But you have to remember different cultures precieve themselves differently, that is, Arabic speaking Muslims arent Arabs ethnically but are culturally and are spread everywhere around the Muslim world.

Exactly why the culture group 'Arabic' might be convenient, but is misleading. And we all have different perceptions of ourselfs. But this 'culture' thing in EU2 is a pretty broad brush and I want to play down the significance of language. I would be happy to rename Arabic to something else, although I can think of no obvious replacement. In most provinces of the Caliphate its fine, because they are Arabs, as well as speaking Arabic. But the North Africans are not purely Arab peoples, right? Some are, others are a mix, but they have taken on significant aspects of the culture of Arabia, including the language called Arabic.

What do you suggest?
 
Well, we already have andalusi and berber, perhaps a Magrebi as a replacement for the arabic culture in North Africa?Its the Arabic western culture.
 
Calipah said:
Well, we already have andalusi and berber, perhaps a Magrebi as a replacement for the arabic culture in North Africa?Its the Arabic western culture.

Before we add them in as a distinct culture, though, we need to see if there is a need for it from the game perspective. Would, for example, the caliphate NOT have Magrehbi culture as a national culture in addition to Arabic and Kurdish?

Who would or would not have Magrehbi culture? It needs to be the case that some Islamic countries in the Med/North African realm would NOT get it for it to be of significance.
 
Well, the seclusion of Arabic culture in NA had allowed a distinct culture there to arise.The dialect, religious ceremonies and dress are more of a moorish taint if anything else.I would assume Tlemscen, Morocco would gain this as a culture.Whilst I wouldnt say Cordoba should get Maghrebi since I assume the arabic culture she has refers to the "Class" of Yemeni or Khalbi Arab aristocracy still in al-Andalus.
 
Calipah said:
Well, the seclusion of Arabic culture in NA had allowed a distinct culture there to arise.The dialect, religious ceremonies and dress are more of a moorish taint if anything else.I would assume Tlemscen, Morocco would gain this as a culture.Whilst I wouldnt say Cordoba should get Maghrebi since I assume the arabic culture she has refers to the "Class" of Yemeni or Khalbi Arab aristocracy still in al-Andalus.

Cool. It's in 6.05

All formerly Arabic provinces west of Alexandria.

I'll change those Tlemcen/Almujadid events also that changed provinces to Arabic.

Maghrebi culture to be given to Tlemscen, Morocco, Tunis, Tripoli and Almujadid.

Matty

Matty
 
MattyG said:
1. Social/Political structure
2. Law
3. Language
4. Historical biases
5. Race

I'll have a go at this for a cultural area which has been much discussed recently, namely Scotland and England. The finest divide would be into Highland Scotland, Lowland Scotland, Northern England and Southern England.

1. Socially: Highland quite different to the rest, but with some similarities to Lowland. The other three are reasonably close, though there are differences between each.
Politically: all four are different - Highland structure is centred around clan chiefs; in the Lowlands power is divided between lairds, bishops and burghers; in Northern England it's a Norman feudal structure but with upper layers occupied almost exclusively by the Percy family; in Southern England there's a much more decentralised Norman feudal system in the countryside, and the towns are also more important than further north. The one unifying factor is that bishops are relatively powerful throughout (except maybe the Highlands).

2. England has Common Law, which is mostly Anglo-Saxon customs as interpreted and standardised by Normans; Scotland has its own law based on Roman law, with Norman, Anglian and Gaelic aspects. Clan customs weren't technically law (though they influenced the evolution of Scottish law) but they might as well have been law in the Highlands.

3. Big divide between Highlands and everyone else; minor gradient in the rest comparable to contemporary Germany.

4. Regional emnities all round at the start; events may open fresh wounds between Highlanders and Lowlanders, and between the Scottish establishment and southern England.

5. Marginal differences in height and hair colour - certainly not enough to constitute a racial divide.


On the scale you propose, the divide between Highland and Lowland is enough to warrant separate cultures, but going south there aren't any clear dividing lines. However, splitting the Germanic bit somewhere might be needed for balance.
 
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Incompetent said:
I'll have a go at this for a cultural area which has been much discussed recently, namely Scotland and England. The finest divide would be into Highland Scotland, Lowland Scotland, Northern England and Southern England.

1. Socially: Highland quite different to the rest, but with some similarities to Lowland. The other three are reasonably close, though there are differences between each.
Politically: all four are different - Highland structure is centred around clan chiefs; in the Lowlands power is divided between lairds, bishops and burghers; in Northern England it's a Norman feudal structure but with upper layers occupied almost exclusively by the Percy family; in Southern England there's a much more decentralised Norman feudal system in the countryside, and the towns are also more important than further north. The one unifying factor is that bishops are relatively powerful throughout (except maybe the Highlands).

2. England has Common Law, which is mostly Anglo-Saxon customs as interpreted and standardised by Normans; Scotland has its own law based on Roman law, with Norman, Anglian and Gaelic aspects. Clan customs weren't technically law (though they influenced the evolution of Scottish law) but they might as well have been law in the Highlands.

3. Big divide between Highlands and everyone else; minor gradient in the rest comparable to contemporary Germany.

4. Regional emnities all round at the start; events may open fresh wounds between Highlanders and Lowlanders, and between the Scottish establishment and southern England.

5. Marginal differences in height and hair colour - certainly not enough to constitute a racial divide.


On the scale you propose, the divide between Highland and Lowland is enough to warrant separate cultures, but going south there aren't any clear dividing lines. However, splitting the Germanic bit somewhere might be needed for balance.


Accordingly, do you feel that it is broadly acceptable that Strathclyde and Lothin share the same culture as the provinces to the south of it (old England)?

If so, what unifying name would you propose?
 
Freiksenet1987 said:
Why are Norwegian and Scandinavian different cultures?

*Pock*

That's the sound of the ball being lobbed back at you.

If you feel they ought not to be, then use the above approach to explain why they are too similar to be different cultures?

Matty :)
 
MattyG said:
Accordingly, do you feel that it is broadly acceptable that Strathclyde and Lothin share the same culture as the provinces to the south of it (old England)?

If so, what unifying name would you propose?

Anglosaxon really is the best name. I know Paradox uses it for England, but it also uses the culture for Scotland post-Act of Union and the United States. I don't think many people today think of Anglo-Saxon as meaning exclusively 'English', unless you take the strange attitude that all white American Protestants are somehow English. I find it hilarious when people regard modern England as being totally culturally different from Scotland, but then lump the US into the 'English' category. :rolleyes:
 
Incompetent said:
Anglosaxon really is the best name. I know Paradox uses it for England, but it also uses the culture for Scotland post-Act of Union and the United States. I don't think many people today think of Anglo-Saxon as meaning exclusively 'English', unless you take the strange attitude that all white American Protestants are somehow English. I find it hilarious when people regard modern England as being totally culturally different from Scotland, but then lump the US into the 'English' category. :rolleyes:


That's cool.
 
1. Social/Political structure
They are close. All of them have Kings. They all derived form Vikings, so they have pretty similar social organization.
2. Law
Norway was a part of Kalmar Union for a long time and their laws are pretty similar.
3. Language
If we consider Danish and Swedish close languages, then Norwegian is really close too. People can generally understand some simple matters now, in 1419 languages would be MUCH more closer.
4. Historical biases
They are all heirs of Vikings. And Norway was part of UoK for a long time.

4/4 (5/5 if we include race). Norwegian and Scandinavian should be one.
 
Freiksenet1987 said:
1. Social/Political structure
They are close. All of them have Kings. They all derived form Vikings, so they have pretty similar social organization.
2. Law
Norway was a part of Kalmar Union for a long time and their laws are pretty similar.
3. Language
If we consider Danish and Swedish close languages, then Norwegian is really close too. People can generally understand some simple matters now, in 1419 languages would be MUCH more closer.
4. Historical biases
They are all heirs of Vikings. And Norway was part of UoK for a long time.

4/4 (5/5 if we include race). Norwegian and Scandinavian should be one.


Not quite how the point system works. It is out of ten, with low points indicating no need for a separate culture.

Looks like it might be 2 or three out of ten by your reckoning.

However, I challenged you on a couple of points.

The fact is that they are NOT part of the union at this point. Were they even part of it in the Interregnum history? And if they have broken away from the Union, then surely this must represent more significant differences than you suggest.

Perhaps they can start the game as the same culture, but that if they do not join the Union (or are not conquered by the union) then they continue to develop further from them and gecome separate culturally at some point.

In addition, I think they ought definitely to have a defferent culture if they are inherited by Scotland. And we just can't have Scotland gaining a culture that covers all of Scandanavia.

Matty
 
Yes, I though about it.

I think they should have Scandinavian culture at start of the game.
Scotland gets something like "gaelonorwegian" culture and slowly provinces in Norway turns to this culture. Provinices captured by Kalmar won't turn to it, they will stay "scandinavian".
 
Freiksenet1987 said:
Yes, I though about it.

I think they should have Scandinavian culture at start of the game.
Scotland gets something like "gaelonorwegian" culture and slowly provinces in Norway turns to this culture. Provinices captured by Kalmar won't turn to it, they will stay "scandinavian".

What of the idea above that should Norway remain independent that it also moves further from the rest of Scandanavia and eventual gets a separate culture?