UPDATE:
So another question on this. Are weak claims not able to be pressed against those who are vassals of another kingdom? because france has come in and vassalized barcelona. I thought ok ill just kill the king and his heir will be uncrowned, allowing me to press the weak claim on barcelona that his vassal currently owns. But I dont see the claim available to me when I try to declare war on the king. I know I cant wage war directly on the duke of barcelona but does that also apply indirectly? Hes 100% invulnerable from a military invasion so long as he hiding behind france?
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So i fabricated claim on barcelona thinking if i sent councilor to capital i would get a duchy claim. i didnt start a war for it when i got a claimant with the claim to the entire duchy later on. Now whenever i try to claim the duchy I only see the claim for the county. Am I missing something obvious to make it show? Or do i need to start a war for the county, wait 10 years then duchy?
So another question on this. Are weak claims not able to be pressed against those who are vassals of another kingdom? because france has come in and vassalized barcelona. I thought ok ill just kill the king and his heir will be uncrowned, allowing me to press the weak claim on barcelona that his vassal currently owns. But I dont see the claim available to me when I try to declare war on the king. I know I cant wage war directly on the duke of barcelona but does that also apply indirectly? Hes 100% invulnerable from a military invasion so long as he hiding behind france?
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So i fabricated claim on barcelona thinking if i sent councilor to capital i would get a duchy claim. i didnt start a war for it when i got a claimant with the claim to the entire duchy later on. Now whenever i try to claim the duchy I only see the claim for the county. Am I missing something obvious to make it show? Or do i need to start a war for the county, wait 10 years then duchy?
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