• We have updated our Community Code of Conduct. Please read through the new rules for the forum that are an integral part of Paradox Interactive’s User Agreement.

Abdul Goatherd

Premature anti-fascist
Aug 2, 2003
3.401
10.267
This is going to be a provocative post. I know it's too late to do anything just now, but let me give it shot.

Just reading over the descriptions of gameplay, it seems as if CK doesn't quite give a very "Medieval" feel. It seems more like a Renaissance-era game, with a couple of Crusades added for flavor.

Perhaps I'm on the wrong track here, but let me state where I am getting at.

The organization of CK seems a little too "top down". It doesn't seem to capture the politics of feudalism. Feudalism was not about "treating your vassals" right to get them to do your bidding and raising cash for military campaigns against your neighboring kingdoms or overseas. That was the problem of Renaissance-era monarchs (& later).

The central political problem in feudalism was that the position of king is not secure and any noble can be chosen king if the nobles so decide.

To give a proper "Medieval" feeling, the gameplay should be organized around that. The following gives an idea about how this might be captured.

From the outset, only Dukes & Counts should be playable. A "king" is not playable. "King" is a title (HRE-style) that is given to the most popular duke in the "kingdom". So you (a Duke) only get to be king if you are elected to it by your peers (other dukes & counts in the kingdom). If you are not popular, you lose the title of king to a competitor. But, even if you lose the title, you'll still stay lord of your ducal demesne -- the only thing is now you'll have to do his bidding.

As a Duke, if you don't do the King's bidding, you get attacked by the king & his allied dukes and might lose a few lands. Alternatively, you can behave, bide your time and build up your lands, relations and form alliances with fellow dukes & counts in your kingdom and either (a) hope you get chosen king at the death of the current one or (b) unwilling to wait or get passed over repeatedly, launch an open revolt with your confederates to regain the royal title. Foreign dukes can be brought in to the fray to help (in return for your help against their fellow dukes/kings, etc.)

e.g. suppose you take control of the Capets. You start off as Duke of France (which is what they formally were) but not king. As Duke of France, you have your own vassals (the counts of Anjou, Maine, Touraine, Blois, etc). But you also have several peers (the Dukes of Gascony, Aquitaine, Normandy, Burgundy, Champagne, Flanders and Toulouse), who have their own vassals (counts). Several ecclesiastical lords (Reims, Laon, etc.) are also peers.

Any one of the secular peers (dukes) can be elected King of France (ecclesiastical lords participate in the election, but cannnot themselves be elected). Could be you (Duke of France). But it could also be the Duke of Aquitaine, or Normandy, or Flanders, etc. who becomes King.

So, suppose the peers elect you as King of France. The peers are now your "vassals" too -- or rather vassals of you as "King of France", and not vassals of you as "Duke of France".

Now, you do some stupid stuff and annoy your peers. Your character dies. But instead of electing the successor in your dynasty, the peers decide to elect the current Duke of Aquitaine as King of France. Now, your son remains Duke of France -- i.e. you still have Anjou, Maine, etc. as vassals -- but you yourself are now a vassal of Aquitaine.

It was perfectly possible and perfectly legal in the medieval era for this to happen. As it happens, the Duke of France was always chosen King of France. But, as we all well know, the Duke of Franconia was not always chosen King of Germany, nor the Prince of Vladimir always Grand Prince of Russia, etc. The politics of the era were dominated by this concern.

List of Kingdoms

As far as continental Europe is concerned, there should be a given number of kingly titles designating elective overlordship over a particular set of duchies.

Off the top of my head, I would restrict this to the five Carolingian titles (King of France, Germany, Italy, Burgundy, Navarre), plus "Emperor of Spain", "King of Denmark", "King of Hungary", "Grand Prince of Russia", and a few more.

But you actually can't be any of these other than by peer election. Otherwise, you start off merely as a duke-level noble and, by dynasty or conqeust, you can only make duke-level or count-level acquisitions (and those need to be invested by the relevant suzerain) .

England would be tougher as it didn't have feudalism exactly in the continental sense (it was a lot more "top-down"). Of course, Byzantium was very top-down as would be many of the eastern kingdoms. But at least the Byzantine Emperor title got some jockey play after 1204. Ireland, of course, has the High King title.

Multiple Kingdoms

In principle, it should be possible for a single dynaty to control duchy titles in different kingdoms (e.g. the Duke of Champagne can also be Duke of Swabia) and, conceivably, be elected to one or both royal titles (King of France and Germany).

But obligations continue. If, say, the King of England happens to be Duke of Aquitaine as well, he still has feudal obligations to the King of France, making this a delicate issue to manage -- as English interests may clash with French ones (as was, in fact, the case). You can opt to play it "Englishally", at the risk of prompting the French king & peers to deprive you of your French domains; or you can play "Frenchily" (perhaps hoping to acquire the French royal title too), but at the cost of growing discontent on the island.

The Empire

The Holy Roman Emperor crown was originally theoretical and designated no territory. Around the time when CK starts, it began being used to designate the three kingdoms of Germany, Italy and Burgundy which happened to sit on the same head at the time. But separate coronations and estates for each continued for a while.

The crowns weren't united into a single imperial crown until later during the game-period. Well into the 16th Century, all the institutions of the HRE still made reference to it being "three kingdoms".

I don't know how you might want to reflect this in gameplay. Unite the three kingdoms from the outset into one imperial crown? Or perhaps there is an "extra" imperial election, granted to the Pope's favorite European monarch (from one of the five Carolingian kingdoms, or just all of the Catholic ones)?

Changing & Creating Kingdoms

In principle, the borders of the kingdoms cannot change except by agreement (treaty) between the two suzerain royals involved and, here is the important point, the Pope (in Russia, by the Khan of the GH, at least in later scenarios)

It is also possible for a rather strong duchy to apply for independence as a distinct kingdom. That application must be approved by the Pope. It must also have the consent of the current royal suzerain.

That's how it happened then. Many of what we call modern "kingdoms" started off as duchies of another kingdom before being recognized as kingdoms by pope and suzerain, e.g. the Counts of Portugal and Castile (Spanish fiefs), the Dukes of Poland, Bohemia & Lower Lorraine (German fiefs), the Duke of Benevento (Italian fief), Count of Sicily (Byzantine fief), the Count of Aragon (Navarran fief) all were or became independent kingdoms at some point. Some code may be written in to make sure that the AI for these particular duchies, if united & strong enough, try to apply for independence.

Ideally, republics (Venice, Pisa, Florence, Novgorod, etc.), could also be created by Papal/Khanate application, but .....

In Sum:

Before the Renaissance began to change the concept of what a "king" was, from merely being a "first noble" by his peers' consent to a majestic royal, ruler by divine right, this was the case. This internal jockeying for the royal position, rather than external conquest & international relations, should dominate the politics of CK. It would put the bickering feud back in feudalism, forcing you to act like a medieval lord, rather than as a Renaissance monarch.

[Note: I would have started the game a little earlier, c. 900 or 1000, to give the feudal chaos more time to play itself through. Perhaps, to capture the gradual changes over the 14th & 15th Century, this might become less pronounced, e.g. after a period of time, election of your dynasty to the royal title becomes a little bit easier depending on how long you've had it.]

What do you think? Am I completely off track here? Or does CK capture the "feudal feel" well enough without this? Or am I completely misinformed and this is, in fact, how the game operates? Or do you prefer kingly conquests rather than ducal feuding?
 
Well, theoretically that was the way how things worked in France. The secular and ecclesiastical peers elected the king in principle.
But in fact, during 350 years (987-1328) only Hugues Capet (count of Paris and duke of France) was elected „officially” by the peers. After the death of the last Capeting (Charles IV) - lack of a direct line descendent - the peers elected Philippe VI, the cousin of Charles IV and the great-grandson of Louis IX (the saint). During three centuries it was natural that the descendents of Hugues Capet follows him on the throne of France.

As for Hungary, during the Árpád-house (1000-1301), the Anjou kings (1308-1387) and Sigismund of Luxemburg (1387-1437) it was a hereditary kingdom and the election didn’t play ANY role. So, I don’t know how the above-mentioned model can work here (all the more so, since there weren’t peers, and the landlords didn’t have a right to elect a king – at least until the 14th century)


Another remark:
If the crown prince was anointed (with the holy oil) and crowned, he remained a king for his life (however there are a couple of exceptions). The coronation ceremony vested the king with a divine transcendency (don’t forget, that he became king and ruled the country from the grace of God). So, your statement „If you are not popular, you lose the title of king to a competitor.” is not correct, since the popularity of a king was irrelevant in this respect.
 
Originally posted by Gergo
As for Hungary, during the Árpád-house (1000-1301), the Anjou kings (1308-1387) and Sigismund of Luxemburg (1387-1437) it was a hereditary kingdom and the election didn’t play ANY role. So, I don’t know how the above-mentioned model can work here (all the more so, since there weren’t peers, and the landlords didn’t have a right to elect a king – at least until the 14th century).

So, did Otto of Lower Bavaria "inherit the throne" by divine right? And who chose Charles of Anjou to be king of Hungary? And wasn't Sigismund of Luxemburg -- who was not an Angevin -- "chosen" over Louis II of Naples, a prince of the blood?

The fact is the Hungarian nobility, from the beginning and even more obviously later, had the power to pick the king and it was understood the king ruled by their consent and approval. This, I believe, is written out in 1222 Bull. That they chose the Arpad dynasty year after year (just as the French nobles chose Capets, etc.) is probably more because of diplomacy, because of a desire for stability and, above everything, because the internal rivalry of the nobles themselves prevented them from agreeing on an alternative candidate and so took the Arpad by default.

This became a custom. But the possibility of losing the throne was always there. If the Hungarian crown "became" elective later on, it was not because of a new, ground-breaking revolutionary notion inserted into the Hungarian constitution, but because the nobles thought it had been so all along.

P.S. The "divine right" doctrine I referred to was a theory invented in the 16th Century to suppress the Renaissance upheavals and make a bid for Absolutism. Yes, there was the "grace of God" idea in the Medieval era, but that is different. Grace was revealed through success in acts, not by mere birth in the right family. If you weren't successful as a king, you weren't supposed to be the king.
 
Originally posted by Damocles
I can think of plenty of Kings who were by no means elected whatsoever, but were in fact a ruling dynasty. For instance, Edward III would be called 'England' as soon as Henry Percy might be called 'Northumberland'.

And so? Annointing a successor means very little other than to priests and while they may be granted the courtesy of title in their pretensions, they were not duke, count or earl until they did homage for their lands. Similarly, a king is not a king until he is crowned (i.e. elevated by his peers).

Or more precisely, as is the case in most western European countries, a king becomes king not in a coronation ceremony with priests and the like, but only from the moment when the nobles "acclaim him" by voice (as was the Roman custom in designating emperors). Formally speaking, that's the election. And, formally speaking, that is the day when the beginning of a new reign is always dated.

My "elective king" proposal is not only to reflect this fact but also the easiest way of introducing Medieval politicking and warmaking into game-play, i.e. where internal relations with and among nobles, not external ones with and among kings, were the dominant concern.
 
Last edited:
Otto of Lower Bavaria didn’t have supporters in Hungary. He arrived here in 1305 and he was crowned by two bishops in that year, but lack of an army he was arrested by a Hungarian oligarch (Kán László) in Transylvania in 1307. So he wasn’t an elected king (only one oligarch family supported him – the Kõszegi family).

[Just a remark: in Hungary the coronation was valid only if the king was crowned by the archbishop of Esztergom, with the Holy Crown (of Saint Stephen) and in Székesfehérvár. If any of the three conditions missed, the coronation was invalid. That is why Károly Róbert (Charles of Anjou) was crowned three times – in 1301, in 1309 and in 1310.]

Charles of Anjou wasn’t elected, he was „declared” king by his followers, only after that the Hungarian oligarchs were defeated by the royal forces (in 1307 and later in 1312), and they were forced to recognize him.

Concerning the Golden Bull of András II (1222); the clause of resistance declares, that if the king dosen’t respect the rights put down in the bull, the nobles have the right to resist him – but nothing more. Although you are right, later, from the 14-15th century this clause was frequently refered to and the right of election was deduced (partially – on the other hand, the theory of the Holy Crown was important in this respect) from the right of resistance.
In the 15th century the principe of the election and the right of primogeniture often clashed. But by this time the estates, the orders were quite strong to do so. But until the 13th-14th century they didn’t exsist.
 
Abdul's system works better for the early middle ages than for the period covered by the game. Major kingdoms like England and France did in fact follow descent, and it would be very odd to suppose that 13th century French noblemen would invoke their electoral rights to deprive an heir of the throne. Plenty of really lousy kings were crowned despite knowledge of their shortcoming; the high nobility as a class chose understandably not to act to undermine the general principle of primogenitre.

Just think of all the controversies that arose after the death of Phillip the Fair. If the notion that election was the sole basis for the king's authority really held, the question of legitimacy would hae been far simpler to decide. Certainly Phillipe V wouldnt have had to wait for the birth (!) and death of his brother's child.
 
Originally posted by Abdul Goatherd
And so? Annointing a successor means very little other than to priests and while they may be granted the courtesy of title in their pretensions, they were not duke, count or earl until they did homage for their lands. Similarly, a king is not a king until he is crowned (i.e. elevated by his peers).

This is absolutely incorrect for England. I'll leave it to others to discuss other nations. The Coronation seremony did annoint a King, the whole principle of Divine Right being that a King derived power from God, and that God's spiritual leader on earth -The Pope, and his representatives, was the only rightful manner of proclaiming a King.

England had a fairly secure centralized administration pre-dating the Normans, William strengthened that administration and combined with his personal holdings, meant that not only was an ordained King legitimately recognized by God, but powerful enough lest any noble decided otherwise.

Baronial problems in England were confined almost exclusively to their determination to cut tax bills, and to devolve executive power from the King to a legislative body for the purpose of cutting tax. Aside from a few isolated incidents (Stephen/Matilda, Henry II, Edward II) monarchial inheritance was unchallenged between 1066-1453.

Sorry, but the idea of a noble usurping the crown, or accumulating enough solitary power to challenge the crown was just not generally possible during this period.
 
Originally posted by Abdul Goatherd
the Dukes of Poland, (German fiefs),

Dukes of Poland were not fiefs of Germany except short periods of Barbarossa rule, Mieszko II, Wladyslaw Herman.

Mieszko I was fief of Germany from SOME of his territories, but not frome WHOLE Poland. The same can be said about other kings.

POlish kingdom started in 1025, that is in period of the game it was kingdom, although not many dukes were given the title (Boleslaw the Brave, Mieszko II, Boleslav the Bold or the Generous, Przemysl II, and then foreign kings - Two Peremyshlids. And then starting from Lokietek all other kings.

Also, Polish throne was hereditary, although the tradition was that every son should be given his portion of land.
 
Well I don't know. We can't really say how secure a king's position is before we play the game. I don't really wish to pass judgement on a game based upon the FAQ and other things.

In any case, election was not always the rule. Guillaume of Normandy was not elected. The hautevilles of Sicily.

Personally I think we should wait and see what happens. I doubt very much that a monarch who annoys all of his vassals for ages will continue to rule.
 
Keynes: Yeah, I am aware of that. The time frame 1066-1419 covers the transition period from ducal jostling to stable royals. So it's neither here nor there precisely. I was thinking about making it a little more like before rather than a little too much like "after.

While it may seem "odd" for French nobles to deprive an heir, it wasn't "odd" for German nobles, who presumably lived in the same political system. There were plenty of incompetent German monarchs too.

Dinsdale: Yeah, England was a rather special case, given how centralized it was. On the other hand, there was a period where the English royal crown was fought for among French nobles, rather than English ones. ;) Normandy, Anjou, Blois & Flanders all jockeyed for it. It was not unchallenged.

szopen76: Granted. Poland should start as a kingdom from CK opening date. But hereditary? I though that after 1137, the Polish crown ("Duke of Cracow") was pretty much elective?

Gjerg: Not sure about William, but the Roger II de Hauteville became King of Sicily by noble acclamation. All he was entitled to otherwise was his title of Count of Sicily & Duke of Apulia, Calabria, Benevento, etc.

A final observation on formality: I thought it was a rule in every European country that a king became king only by noble "acclamation". It may not work in every case, e.g. Matilda was acclaimed, but not crowned, and she is often excluded from the list of English monarchs.

On the other hand, there are episodes when kings never bothered to be crowned, but were satisfied with acclamation. e.g. the HR Emperor stopped being crowned King of Burgundy at Arles and yet remained king. In the 17th Cent., France & Portugal (and Spain?) gave the crown "permanently" to the Virgin Mary, so that subsequent kings were, in fact, never crowned at all but merely acclaimed (there was a ceremony, but the crown was left on a pillow). Even in the Hungarian case, where the crown of St. Stephen may seem all-important, kings went for long time without coronation. And contradictory acclamations have happened (e.g. Ferdinand and Zapolya were both acclaimed at two separate diets after 1526 -- and both were regarded as "legitimate", making for confusing dating)

Coronation offered "recognition", but it did not, by itself, make a king "legitimate". There are numerous cases of pretenders putting together a hasty coronation ceremony, but without acclamation, their title was not recognized by anybody, domestic or foreign.

Also AFAIK the primogeniture rule was not formally fixed in the case of the royal. Ducal & count titles were hereditary because inheritance was enshrined in edicts & statutes. The inheritance of the royal title, AFAIK, was never set in legal stone until much later (if at all). It may have been customary in most places by 1066-1419, but that is all. AFAIK, there were no documents establishing a particular dynasty or bloodline as "ruler for now and eternity" until much later.

The Pope may have said a thing or two about it, but the bloodlines story was an older pagan tradition (and the rules were not always clear, even among them). If there was a pretence of "legal" continuity with an older age, it was with the Roman one of acclamation. The blood rule came to be customary in the feudal era for the same reason it came to be customary in the pagan era -- to avoid conflicts among contenders. The Church may have gotten on board to help out. But the legal niceties were still Roman.

Still, formalities aside, I am proposing this "elective king" business to make for more "feudal-like" gaming. I've just got a feeling that the way it's set up, there's going to be dominated by big international wars between the major kingdoms, when that was hardly the norm in that era.

And recall: the Crusades were primarily undertaken by nobles, not kings. And the Latin kings were made king by being acclaimed by the conquering nobles. I don't think the Pope or the Byzantine Emperor had much of a voice in this.

Plus, a player who achieves monarch status should enjoy "special" features unavailable to regular (ducal) players, e.g. internal adjudicating powers, charter-granting powers, a coinage monopoly, the power to change borders, invest/divest titles, possession of vacant/minority domains, etc. But he should not have any more powers than that over non-demesne domains. In other words, the monarch has to rule his "kingdom" differently from his demesne.
 
Originally posted by Abdul Goatherd
Dinsdale: Yeah, England was a rather special case, given how centralized it was. On the other hand, there was a period where the English royal crown was fought for among French nobles, rather than English ones. ;) Normandy, Anjou, Blois & Flanders all jockeyed for it. It was not unchallenged.

There were few "English" nobles left after The Bastard's reign. Even if you count the peculiar mix of pre-conquest Nobility "english" and that's stretching things a bit :)

Granted the throne was not unchallenged, but neither was it elected.

I'd love a medieval game where the focus was on the petty (or not so petty) nobility, an old game; Lords Of The Realm was interesting for a while. A Paradox version of that, with the emphasis on politiking would be a dream!
 
Originally posted by Abdul Goatherd
szopen76: Granted. Poland should start as a kingdom from CK opening date. But hereditary? I though that after 1137, the Polish crown ("Duke of Cracow") was pretty much elective?

Kingdom was hereditary.
The title of duke of Cracow was not. It was in some sense elective, but only Piasts were candidates.
 
Originally posted by Abdul Goatherd
Gjerg: Not sure about William, but the Roger II de Hauteville became King of Sicily by noble acclamation. All he was entitled to otherwise was his title of Count of Sicily & Duke of Apulia, Calabria, Benevento, etc.

A final observation on formality: I thought it was a rule in every European country that a king became king only by noble "acclamation". It may not work in every case, e.g. Matilda was acclaimed, but not crowned, and she is often excluded from the list of English monarchs.

Roger only got his royal title officially when he managed to con it out of one Pope and then another (actually an Antipope and then the real Pope).

And Matilda wasn't crowned simply because she didn't have time to arrange one before being driven out of London. It always irks me when she is left out of lists of the English monarchs simply because of this, when she was so obviously in control of the nation for a few months. Edward V or Edward VIII were never crowned either, and yet they always appear in such lists...
 
i like this

in russia the grand duke was usually chosen *basicly a king or czar later* on sometimes they were elected or chozen by a city , if republic of greater novgorod didnt want someone to be a grand duke he was very limited or not able to become grand duke at all.
usually being grand duke was a grant to tax the great city/region
it was sort of the elected dukes "grand ducal land" without being able to be passed on and if they didnt like what u did they didnt pay taxes and noone was able to force them until ivan.
Basicly all lords selected the next grand duke lots of times it wasnt necessarily the sons of the previous one.
 
Originally posted by Abdul Goatherd
.....
Also AFAIK the primogeniture rule was not formally fixed in the case of the royal. Ducal & count titles were hereditary because inheritance was enshrined in edicts & statutes. The inheritance of the royal title, AFAIK, was never set in legal stone until much later (if at all). It may have been customary in most places by 1066-1419, but that is all. AFAIK, there were no documents establishing a particular dynasty or bloodline as "ruler for now and eternity" until much later.

Now I think it's you who're thinking in a Renaissance manner. ;) In medieval law, at least until Roman principles of law are rediscovered with the Corpus Juris Civilis in the late 11th century, custom and tradition are perhaps the most important element, and they remain so despite the growing importance of Roman law.

In most cases, the monarch would be considered the 'source of law', but importantly, he is to a lesser or greater degree bound by laws and custom.

More generally, I think you're focusing too much on the formal/legal aspect of the question, and applying the conclusions you get from that too broadly. I agree that it may seem like the succession to the throne is formally dependent on acclamation by the nobles, but looking at a few medieval lists of kings, it's apparent that the principle of primogeniture is in the majority of cases virtually uncontested as long as a proper heir apparent is present - with the important exception of the Holy Roman Emperor, of course. Also, it's important to remember that the idea of "kingship" varies considerably between both countries and individuals.

In any case, I'd be very interested in hearing which sources and literature that have inspired you to formulate these views - they're very different from my own, but it's always interesting to be exposed to something new. :)
 
Originally posted by AKjeldsen
Now I think it's you who're thinking in a Renaissance manner. ;) In medieval law, at least until Roman principles of law are rediscovered with the Corpus Juris Civilis in the late 11th century, custom and tradition are perhaps the most important element, and they remain so despite the growing importance of Roman law.

It is not the "rediscovery" of written Roman law which was pivotal in my story. It is the fact that most of these kingdoms started off as Roman federates and so many of their political "customs" and "institutions" (e.g. acclamation) are really just adaptations of Roman, rather than tribal, customs and insitutions.

In most cases, the monarch would be considered the 'source of law', but importantly, he is to a lesser or greater degree bound by laws and custom.

I agree with you here -- but I am hard pressed to find clear instances of the king being the "source" of law. He was the "defender" of a pre-existing system of customary law, most of them dating to the "foundation" of the kingdom soon after 476. All the monarchical powers, from taxation to monopolies and charters, had to be explicitly grounded as a "variation" on some obscure feudal custom.

More generally, I think you're focusing too much on the formal/legal aspect of the question, and applying the conclusions you get from that too broadly. I agree that it may seem like the succession to the throne is formally dependent on acclamation by the nobles, but looking at a few medieval lists of kings, it's apparent that the principle of primogeniture is in the majority of cases virtually uncontested as long as a proper heir apparent is present - with the important exception of the Holy Roman Emperor, of course. Also, it's important to remember that the idea of "kingship" varies considerably between both countries and individuals.

No dispute here. The proposal was not because it is historically "more accurate" in any tremendous way, but because it makes for more interesting gameplay that would be historically-consistent.

Consider the "constitutional" point again. Medieval kings, as you point out, were extremely constrained by customary law. But CK players are not. There is nothing, as far as I see it, that prevents a CK player from doing stuff like taxing the bejeezus out of his lands, raising an army with cash and launching an arbitrary war of conquest -- when all these steps would be a legal anathema for a king in the Medieval era and bring forth a huge constitutional crisis that would endanger the monarchy.

In these things, there are rituals and customs that need to be respected. Everything a Medieval king did had to be done by custom and consultation. The king's mightiest resource was not his treasury (a pittance) but his deft ability to knit varying & temporary alliances among his vassals. The vassals did "the king's business", not because they were "loyal to the blood", but because a particular item of that business was structured in a way that rewarded or threatened the vassal's advantage.

I don't see this in the current design of CK. Arbitrary constraints could be imposed "event-like" to force respect of customs, but I just see these being overcome easily as CK players master the gaming technique.

The Medieval constraints on kingship should be in the game engine in a way that they cannot be sidestepped or overcome by, say, immense amounts of gold. I believe my "elective king" proposal does that. It forces you to work with and through vassals. The threat of deposition places a real constraint on what a monarch can do and forces him to deal with his vassals with a little more respect and deference. It gives the vassals a source of real, independent power. It prevents gamers from "acting like" renaissance monarchs and replicates the constraints of custom and expectations of the kingly role. If you can think of a better way to make CK players act like Medieval kings and not Renaissance monarchs, I'd like to hear it.

That "election" (acclamation) also happens to have a legal/customary basis (de jure as in France or de facto as in Germany) makes this gaming proposal not overtly anachronistic. Again, as Keynes pointed out above, it would perhaps be better suited for a slightly earlier period, but there is no good reason to omit it entirely in the CK time frame. It was not that long before.
 
Johan wrote in the "Two Crusader Kings games!" thread:

You can also play vassals and any count thats around.

So, finally we will be able to play vassals, too; however not "only Dukes & Counts" as you wrote Abdul Goatherd...
 
Originally posted by Gergo
So, finally we will be able to play vassals, too; however not "only Dukes & Counts" as you wrote Abdul Goatherd...

Um, the way I understand it is the only vassals represented in the game are Dukes and Counts (unless they've added another layer of vassalage recently).... ;)
 
Originally posted by Abdul Goatherd
The Empire

The Holy Roman Emperor crown was originally theoretical and designated no territory. Around the time when CK starts, it began being used to designate the three kingdoms of Germany, Italy and Burgundy which happened to sit on the same head at the time. But separate coronations and estates for each continued for a while.

The crowns weren't united into a single imperial crown until later during the game-period. Well into the 16th Century, all the institutions of the HRE still made reference to it being "three kingdoms".

I don't know how you might want to reflect this in gameplay. Unite the three kingdoms from the outset into one imperial crown? Or perhaps there is an "extra" imperial election, granted to the Pope's favorite European monarch (from one of the five Carolingian kingdoms, or just all of the Catholic ones)?

Technically, the 3 crowns were never united during the game period. There were several "unified" coronations, but they preferably (tho not always) involved archbishops from each of the kingdoms to make it "official".

Ottonians: Preferred a single coronation for both their kingdoms (Germany & Italy), although Henry II had to reconquer Italy and so was crowned separately.

Salians: Conrad II had 1 coronation for each Kingdom. Henry III was crowned King of Germany & Italy simultaneously, but had a separate coronation for Burgundy. Henry IV was crowned King of all 3 simultaneously. His first son Conrad (III) was crowned once for Germany & once for Italy, while his second, Henry V, had one "unified" coronation.

Staufen: Conrad III was crowned once each for Germany & Italy. Frederick I was deliberately crowned once each for Germany, Italy, & Burgundy to make clear to each that he was the boss. Henry VI was crowned King of Germany & Burgundy at Aachen, then King of Italy at Milan. Philip I & Frederick II were each crowned once for all 3.

For the rest of the game period, Italy & Burgundy were slipping away. Only 4 Emperors were crowned King of Italy: Henry VII (1311), Charles IV (1355), Sigismund I (1431), & Frederick III (1452). Of these, only 1 was crowned KIng of Burgundy: Charles IV (1365).

Regardless, the Kingdoms were separate entities, each having its own crown, capital, & administration. They could be broken off for sub/co-Kings, but the traditional pattern was that while the Emperor was in either Germany or Italy, his son and Co-King (Mitkonig) was ruling in the other (like Conrad II-Henry III, Henry IV-Conrad (III), Frederick I-Henry VI, Frederick II-Henry (VII), etc.).