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Reclaiming that which you have lost

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unmerged(8303)

unmerged(8303)

Henri II Valois
Mar 19, 2002
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www.europa-universalis.com
Lets say I have a claim on a nameless province in southern Italy. I never manage to make good on it. How long should my claim to it last?

What about provinces you DO make good on but lose to another power? How long can you claim it is yours?

For example - if my dynasty claims part of Sicily for itself, captures it and in a mad rush of bad fortune while we're tied up against the Danes fighting over control of another nameless province we lost our Sicilian land.

Should I be able to go there in 10 years, 50, 100, 200 years(?) and say - "Wait a minute, this land belongs to me and my family. Prepare yourself for war!" - but able to say we legimitately and come not as a conquerer, but a liberator - that is the key point.

In EU2 as provence, you couldn't claim the remains of the empire that existed 200 years before. So what of CK? :)

*answers not expected, opinions welcomed. :D
 
well the Brits maintained their claims on France well into the 1700s despite the fact they had lost it a few hundred years before...

I think Claims will just hang around and cause trouble with Diplomacy between the rightful claimant and the Usurper...
 
I think that throughout history, people have sought to make wars legitimate no matter how long ago a claim was founded. It seems that certain peoples hold grudges over land even if they lost that land something like 1000 years ago . . . The question is how legitimate do other nations consider that claim to be?
 
Originally posted by Lasse Nielsen
alsac-lorraine is a good excample of this, or Skåne (the southern tip of sweden) which denmark wanted for a couple of hundred years after they lost i to Sweden.
Click to expand...

Skåne is however out of the time-span of CK...
 
Originally posted by kurtbrian
Skåne is however out of the time-span of CK...
Click to expand...
A more appropriat example from within the CK time frame could be Sicily. The Byzantines still claimed the island when the Normans took it from the Muslims, having lost it over a hundred years earlier.
 
Originally posted by Napoleon XIV
well the Brits maintained their claims on France well into the 1700s despite the fact they had lost it a few hundred years before...
Click to expand...
Hey, Franz Joseph I of Austria still called himself "King of Jerusalem" in 1900!:eek: :D
 
My question is this...how "flimsy" does a claim have to be for it to be justified? Such as the Danish claim on the English Crown....thus resulting in Stamford Bridge. (well, I guess that battle had passed by the time the game starts...but just as an example).
 
Originally posted by Doc
My question is this...how "flimsy" does a claim have to be for it to be justified? Such as the Danish claim on the English Crown....thus resulting in Stamford Bridge. (well, I guess that battle had passed by the time the game starts...but just as an example).
Click to expand...
That was not a Danish claim, but a Norwegian... ;)

And the claim wasn't that flimsy. Harald Hardraade was co-ruler with, then successor or, his nephew Magnus I who struck a deal with the Danish king Hardeknut that he who lived for the longest time should inherit both kingdoms. When the Dane died in 1042 Magnus became king of both Norway and Denmark. The English crown was usurped by Edward the Confessor, and both Magnus and his successor Harald claimed it but weren't able to put any force behing that claim until 1066 because of the "problems" caused by the continuing on-off war with Svend Estridsen in Denmark.
 
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