For the fourth time in this thread, the two elections in the Weimar Republic in 1932 are considered fair and free by historians. NSDAP were not responsible for women suffrage, but Hitler generally got more electoral support from women than men so one can hardly say they considered it a huge problem. Quite frankly, they seem to have had less problems with it than the political elite in the freedom fighting country of France, which in no election prior to the war allowed woman suffrage.
And in 1933? IIRC by that time Hitler was Chancellor (by March elections) and SA ruffians outside polling places were common, as well as special powers being held by key cronies of Hitler, Goering as Minister of the Interior for Prussia and Wilhelm Frick as a security chief for example using these powers to help the Nazis.
That's right, they would have abolished voting altogether, given they had won the election in the first place.
Really a voting system with strong state intimidation was better for propaganda purposes since it allowed them to claim legitimacy from a popular vote.
I can give you some book recommendations.
Please do.
Yes, this is typically called winning. If you too, wanna call it something else when people you don't like win, be my guest.
Merkel formed a coalition which resulted in government, Hitler in 1932 didn't. So I'm not sure what your point is.
The problem was that all of the discussion has revolved around when the Weimar Republic still existed. So it's a bit confusing when you enter the debate and say that Hitler won elections in the Weimar Republic because they were held in a totalitarian state,
Never said this?
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