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Mrdie

Founder of eRegime
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Dec 16, 2006
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Thank you. May I suggest that you put the books' link into your signature? :)
 
Read the first few pages, cannot say I've seen a more ahistorical "history" book in my life. Such a confused attempt, if not pure propaganda.
 
Read the first few pages, cannot say I've seen a more ahistorical "history" book in my life. Such a confused attempt, if not pure propaganda.

Yeah, it's probably overestimating the Greek nature of ancient Macedon; it implies that the Macedonians were all Hellenised, rather than being a probably Thracian kingdom with a Greek aristocracy as most scholars (IIRC) believe (given the ambiguous position ancient Greek writers placed them in). But I wouldn't go so far as to call it pure propaganda; I don't imagine many Russian scholars were wild philhellenes, I'd expect them to be more in line with the Yugoslav "Macedonians were absolutely not Greeks" rubbish. It seems like a decent, if dated, history.
 
Not sure if trolling or baiting or just plain wrong, but whatever. Macedon was a proper Dorian Kingdom and everyone knew that the Athenians (Ionians) despised their "barbarian" traditions of monarchy, feudalism and land ownership of the 'poor'. And they hate them because historically there's been lots of

As for language, no one truly understood what the freaking Aeolians were saying either but I don't see people saying they weren't Greek. The rest of the Greeks just felt that anyone who was a neighbour of barbarians was not good enough. The Athenians said so of their fellow Ionians in Asia Minor as well. Go to Greece now and people still don't really understand other people's dialects. Same thing happens in Italy and many other countries today. Why would it be different before any centralised government even existed???

Also, Athens is not the only thing Greek from ancient Greece and anyone who wishes to claim so is wrong. Anyone who insists upon it is just propagating for whatever reason. It's typical for "scholars" to say ancient Greece this and ancient Greece that when they're only talking about the Athenians.

Thrace on the other hand is a different issue.
The (Greek) world was split into the 'continents' of Libya, Thracia, Europa and Asia, which were the mythological daughters of Oceanus. Greeks were part of all those areas.
Eventually Thrace was merged into 'Europa' by Herodotus' time. So anyone saying much about Thrace in about the 5th century BCE is talking about a continent and not just a region. And definitely not about an 'ethnically Thracian tribe' as there was no such thing. Thrace consisted of indigenous peoples, Greeks, Illyrians, Celts and others. It was very rare in antiquity to talk collectively in terms of ethnic background for people. Probably the Greeks only reserved that for their own. With the 4 attributes: homoemon – same bloodline, homoglosson – same language, homothriskon – same religion, homotropon – same ways, behaviour. But this is also why the Ionians didn't accept others as 'Hellenes', because of the last bit. Homotropon. The style of governance that Dorians practice was alien to them and they despised them for it. The true judge of Hellenism was the Olympic committee of the time. And there was no way of getting your way in if you weren't able to prove your 'home nation' was Greek in every way to the Hellanodikes (which pretty much means the judges of Greekness). Herodotus tells us, when he talks about Alexander I, that Macedon was a proven part of the Dorian 'nation', one of the four Greek nations.

Chalkidike, a mostly Ionian region, was called Chalkis of Thrace to avoid confusion with Chalkis of Euboea, which still carries the name. No one will tell you that Chalkidicians (like Aristotle) were Thracian, but they will all agree that they were Ionian. In fact, they were both.

And it's true that the Descendance of the Dorians came from the north, but it's also named the Return of the Heraclidae. Which meant that Heracles was supposed to be Dorian as well. (Of course your "modern scholars" call this event a Dorian invasion despite no source suggesting such a name, but it was constructed in the early 19th century CE). But the Cretans were also Dorians and so were people in the south of Asia Minor so it can be assumed that the people travelled from the Thracian region towards Greece to settle up north and in the south and east Peloponnese (Sparta, Argos, Megara etc). The Macedonians were a Persian vassal for a long time, which also gives negative points to the 'free' Greeks. But they also supported Sparta in the Peloponnese War, who were also backed by the Persian Empire. And we also know that the Dorians probably lived around the Pindos mountain, which is pretty much next to Macedon, so it's safe to assume that they've always been around.

As for Macedon itself, the Kingdom rose when they conquered the neighbouring states of Orestes, Pelagones and so on. Greek kingdoms and Greek peoples of course. Mostly of Dorian background too. There were a few Paeonian kingdoms like the Almopians but they were a minority and history does not tell us of their luck under Macedon. We also do not know what being a Paeonian really meant, as most of these terms were geographical and not national/ethnic.

There was no such thing as an 'ethnic Thracian' or 'ethnic European' or 'ethnic Asian' or 'ethnic Libyan'. Those are modern day confusions and misconceptions. The indigenous people were under the Odrysian Kingdom. So older history books would call them Odrysians and not simply Thracians. That became interchangeable a millennia later.

The Romans had a 'Europa' province in modern day Thrace btw. They're also the ones that created this augmented geographical region of Macedonia. I don't see people calling the Athenians or the Thebans as Achaeans though. That would be preposterous. But who cares if the same thing is systematically being done elsewhere for specific irredentist purposes....

P.S: There's probably the number of zero actual scholars that consider Macedon to not be a Greek kingdom. Good troll & bait attempt nonetheless.

P.S.2. Imagine how silly those ancient Greeks were, placing their holy mount Olympus in Macedon...

P.S.3: In ancient Greek mythology, Makednos (father of Macedon) and Magnes (father of Magnesia) were brothers. Magnesia is in central Greece, Thessaly, where present day Volos is.
 
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I should reiterate for the unwary: diegosimone claims that latin is a dialect of greek and that the greek alphabet is 150,000 years old. He should not be trusted on the subject of linguistics.
 
I should reiterate for the unwary: diegosimone claims that latin is a dialect of greek and that the greek alphabet is 150,000 years old. He should not be trusted on the subject of linguistics.

And that the Minoans had copper mines in Canada...
 
I should reiterate for the unwary: diegosimone claims that latin is a dialect of greek and that the greek alphabet is 150,000 years old. He should not be trusted on the subject of linguistics.

No I do not. I said that the Latin alphabet is Greek (Euboean and that the language was considered a hybrid Aeolian Greek dialect by some.

I didn't make a claim about the age of the alphabet.
So if you have anything to add or state over what I've said you could very well do so instead of say lies about another forum member. The post which you've downrated isn't even revolved around language bar a small sentence. So next time, stop with the baiting and just answer what is written if you wish to have an input.

As for your statement, here's a Journal Entry about what I've said:
https://www.jstor.org/stable/30038039?seq=1#page_scan_tab_contents

And that the Minoans had copper mines in Canada...
That was not my claim, I just mentioned it.
( http://canada.greekreporter.com/201...nt-greeks-made-it-to-america-before-columbus/ )
 
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Whilst I have had some disagreements with Diegosimeone over some of his more - non-mainstream - views, in this case his arguments largely hold water. Classical Macedon was clearly part of the Hellenic world and was accepted as part of it at the time. The 'Macedon was not Greek' arises from a number of sources:

1. 19th Century nationalism: there were a group of 'historians' who attempted to demonstrate that the achievements of Macedonians were not Greek but Yugoslav. This is the worst sort of politicised history and should be treated with scorn.

2. Attic cultural imperialism: During the Roman period Athens was viewed as the heartland of Greece and Attic Greek was considered the most pure and perfect Greek. Anything that differed from this was 'less perfect' and 'less Greek'. Macedonian Greek was distinctly different and so Macedonian was considered less Greek. This model of 'Greekness' has influenced our understanding of Greece and so has lead to arguments about how Greek Macedon is. If you examine it carefully even the question itself is quite odd - How Greek is Macedon? 77.3%? (How German is Saxony?) Only from the viewpoint of ethno-nationalism is the question even meaningful. How culturally similar was Macedon to its southern neighbours and how did it differ? is a much better question and will reveal much more meaningful answers.

3. Modern Geography: What was considered part of the Greek world by the Greeks and what we now consider as part of Greece are very different things and there is a natural tendency to conflate the two. The modern state of Macedonia is not Greek, and the antics of the Greek government when it was declared simply show the (possibly deliberate) confusion of classical and modern political geography.

4. Greek regionalism: Think about a local stereotype for a regional grouping such a certain group being simple country folk, another being gangsters a third being self obsessed. The Classical Greeks did exactly the same thing (as does everybody). Do nor confuse Attic prejudices about Macedonia being a semi-barbarian kingdom for accurate statements explaining the ethno-cultural makeup of Macedon.

5. Macedonian imperialism: After becoming the dominant power of the entire known world Macedonians began to see themselves as special and began to see the things that separated them from the Ionic Greeks as being the things that made them special. This can be seen in the citizenship of cities such as Alexandria (the big one in Egypt) which acknowledged Greek and Macedonian citizens (but not Egyptian). i.e. Macedonian was not the same as Greek. This should not be confused with Macedonia prior to Alexander's conquests considering itself non-Greek, or being considered as non-Greek.

6. Origins: Macedonia was most likely not a Greek state at its origin. That is sometimes taken to mean that it was not a Greek state at a later date. The first statement does not lead inevitably to the conclusion in the second. States can change their culture over time. Saxony is not Polish, although it was in the 6th Century.
 
For the record, no one is claiming that Macedon was not connected to the greek world, didn't have at least partially a greek-speaking population, etc.

It is also clear that Macedon was considered something of a special case. (the classic "Barbarians ruled by hellenes" phrasing) it's pretty clear that macedon even before Phillip and Alexander had both greek-speakers, speakers of ancient macedonian (which may or may not be "greek", in the same way that danish and swedish may or may not be different languages, it depends on how you count) and speakers of other languages (ancient illyrian and thracian languages, etc.)

They were also in many ways different from other greeks, and this was "a thing", depending on the situation both macedonians and other greeks tried to figure themselves in different ways. The need to do so indicates that the position of Macedon was by no means clear or unproblematic. (even Alexander at several points distinguished between macedonians and greeks)
 
Illyria, Thracia, Dacia, Phrygia and so on were REGIONS, not "nations". The people there could have also been of Greek stock, of indigenous stock, of Celtic stock, or whatever else that was undocumented at the time. Your neighbour in Illyria or Thracia could have been of a different 'nation'. They were just geographical toponyms. Paeonia for example was another mixed region. Some of the Paeonians were 'barbarian', some were Greek, others were mixed. Macedon conquered a few of these people with the same analogy. Some barbarian, some Greek, some mixed. Macedon on the other hand was just a kingdom. It grew large but still people didn't call Macedonia what they regarded as the region, but simply the kingdom's borders. Same applied with Epirus which was another kingdom. And those kingdoms were "old school" by the time we have recorded history. Most Greeks identified with the 'politeia', the city-state, and having a Kingdom was considered "barbarian" and uncivlized.

There was no such thing as an Illyrian language or a Thracian language. Plural is used mostly. There were many languages or dialects that belonged to those groups. Just like with Greek, we know that there were 4 "languages" that made up the Greek one. But with Thrace and Illyria we have no documentation on whether they were made of up various dialects. We just know and (should) assume that they are languages that were spoken in a given region and we cannot know their relation with each other. Just like you cannot assume relation between Gaelic and English just because they're spoken in the same region today, with the only difference that we know how both of them ended up there.

The differences were slim when it came to Doric and Attic, but significant when it came to Aeolic and Achaean or Arcado-Cypriot. Arcadia as a region was considered Aeolic but this dialect is considered Achaean and that it derived as a mixture of Dorian and Achaean Greek. Both inhabited the land of course. Achaeans and Aeolians. There's the assumption that Aeolians were displaced by Achaeans but it's prehistory and only assumptions can be made.

The Dorians mixed with Aeolian and the Ionians so their languages were the same. Epirotes and Macedonians stayed up north and were isolated (Greece has a mountainous landscape) from the Peloponnesian Dorians who had more of an Attic influence or the Cretan Dorians (who are the first and only ones to be recorded by Homer). Epirotes are considered to be part of the home of the Dorian people and people didn't understand them very well and they had different customs, Macedon is just near by and there was never any source that suggested that Thessaly bordered with "barbarians", that is neither Epirus or Macedon were ever considered 'barbarian'. Macedon was also bordering with Chalkidike, which was considered Ionian/Attic.

There is also no source that suggests that Epirotes and Macedonians spoke a different dialect. yet with Epirus it's accepted that they spoke a Doric Greek language , probably in its purest form as it had almost no changes over times whereas in the south there was influence from the other Greek dialects, but when it comes to Macedon, people want to "invent" a new language just because they want to remove Macedon from Greek history. There was influence from Thessaly (Aeolian) and Chalkidike(Attic) as it was less secluded than Epirus and there could have been some influence from the various Illyrian or Thracians tribes in the north. But there's no evidence to suggest that it was not a Greek language. Greek areas that neighboured with "barbarians" typically had some linguistic influence on each other. The same is true for those in Ionia, Italia(Magna Graecia) and Libya.

If anything, Macedon, along with Epirus, Athens,Sparta, Thebes, Crete, the Ionian coast (modern day Aegean Turkey) and the Ionian & Aegean islands have historically been part of Greece from day 1, that is, Herodotus mentions them and considers them entirely Greek in the first recorded Greek history book. Then we have other areas where Greeks have settled, places like Egypt, Phoenicia, Thrace, Phrygia, Illyria (the coastline of modern day Albania up to Croatia), Italy, Libya (ie, parts of northern Africa), Malta, south of France, coast of Spain etc. No one says that "Phoenicia = Greece" or "Illyria = Greece" based on this. Because a) it's far from the truth and b) it's only about a small part of that where some Greeks have migrated or have descended from Greek migrants/settlers. And they are regions, not "nations". From those, only Egypt would qualify as a nation. It's typical of ancient Greek historians to use the toponyms when they describe people. The city usually if it's a city-state around the Greek world, the kingdom if it's a Kingdom and the region if it's an area that's not entirely inhabited from Greeks. You can spot the difference (in the original sources and not the English translations) when it comes to describing a Greek from Phoenicia and when it comes to describing other people of Phoenicia, or when it comes to the Persians, Indians, Egyptians etc compared to other Greeks.
 
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And as extra input, following Herodotus' statements"
The 'Hellenic' nation was born from the Pelasgians who were inhabiting Greece according to him.
The Dorians 'broke' from the Pelasgians and formed a Greek identity. Later on, the Ionians and the Aeolians broke from the Pelasgians and joined the Dorians in the new Greek identity.

His statement was that the Athenians never moved from their area in Attica, whilst the others were more nomadic (polyplanetic as he says, which means poly- = a lot -planetic = wandering). So a group of people that was scattered around is the best guess for what he meant. But he elaborates and says they first lived under Deucalion in Phthiotis, under Doros (son of Hellene) at the foot of Mount Ossa and Mount Olympus which carried the name Estiaotida and then they moved to Pindos under the name Makednon. And then they moved to the Peloponnese.
That's pretty much the Dorians according to Herodotus. No timeline given of course but at least we have an order and Macedon is of course also considered part of this. And that the Pelasgians spoke a language that was different to the Greek but later on got assimilated into the Attic mostly dialect.
Herodotus also says that some 'barbarians' were part of the Hellenic world, meaning that some other unidentified indigenous peoples that did not relate with the Pelasgians became part of the Hellenic 'nation'.

Book 1, chapter 56

τούτοισι ἐλθοῦσι τοῖσι ἔπεσι Κροῖσος πολλόν τι μάλιστα πάντων ἥσθη, ἐλπίζων ἡμίονον οὐδαμὰ ἀντ᾽ ἀνδρὸςβασιλεύσειν Μήδων, οὐδ᾽ ὦν αὐτὸς οὐδὲ οἱ ἐξ αὐτοῦ παύσεσθαι κοτὲ τῆς ἀρχῆς. μετὰ δὲ ταῦτα ἐφρόντιζεἱστορέων τοὺς ἂν Ἑλλήνων δυνατωτάτους ἐόντας προσκτήσαιτο φίλους, [2] ἱστορέων δὲ εὕρισκεΛακεδαιμονίους καὶ Ἀθηναίους προέχοντας τοὺς μὲν τοῦ Δωρικοῦ γένεος τοὺς δὲ τοῦ Ἰωνικοῦ. ταῦτα γὰρ ἦν τὰπροκεκριμένα, ἐόντα τὸ ἀρχαῖον τὸ μὲν Πελασγικὸν τὸ δὲ Ἑλληνικὸν ἔθνος. καὶ τὸ μὲν οὐδαμῇ κω ἐξεχώρησε, τὸ δὲ πολυπλάνητον κάρτα. [3] ἐπὶ μὲν γὰρ Δευκαλίωνος βασιλέος οἴκεε γῆν τὴν Φθιῶτιν, ἐπὶ δὲ Δώρου τοῦἝλληνος τὴν ὑπὸ τὴν Ὄσσαν τε καὶ τὸν Ὄλυμπον χώρην, καλεομένην δὲ Ἱστιαιῶτιν: ἐκ δὲ τῆς Ἱστιαιώτιδος ὡςἐξανέστη ὑπὸ Καδμείων, οἴκεε ἐν Πίνδῳ Μακεδνὸν καλεόμενον: ἐνθεῦτεν δὲ αὖτις ἐς τὴν Δρυοπίδα μετέβη καὶἐκ τῆς Δρυοπίδος οὕτω ἐς Πελοπόννησον ἐλθὸν Δωρικὸν ἐκλήθη.

Translation:
When he heard these verses, Croesus was pleased with them above all, for he thought that a mule would never be king of the Medes instead of a man, and therefore that he and his posterity would never lose his empire. Then he sought very carefully to discover who the mightiest of the Greeks were, whom he should make his friends. [2] He found by inquiry that the chief peoples were the Lacedaemonians among those of Doric, and the Athenians among those of Ionic stock. These races, Ionian and Dorian, were the foremost in ancient time, the first a Pelasgian and the second a Hellenic people. The Pelasgian race has never yet left its home; the Hellenic has wandered often and far. [3] For in the days of king Deucalion1 it inhabited the land of Phthia, then the country called Histiaean, under Ossa and Olympus, in the time of Dorus son of Hellen; driven from this Histiaean country by the Cadmeans, it settled about Pindus in the territory called Macedonian; from there again it migrated to Dryopia, and at last came from Dryopia into the Peloponnese, where it took the name of Dorian.2

Here 'ethnos' becomes 'people'.

If you fast forward a few centuries, the Athenians would consider anyone else of a lesser stock because they were not "pure Pelasgians" for at least until Solon and Pericles were around. And Herodotus pretty much suggests that Macedonians have always been 'Hellenic' whereas Athenians were not but got integrated later. And it's funny because the Athenian history is what people consider Hellenic/Greek and use as a focal point.

I've read ancient Greek, modern Greek and English versions of the books and specific chapters. The English version is typically watered down and leaves aside many details that change the meaning in many cases, or leaves things in doubt when Herodotus states them pretty clearly.

For example, book 8, chapter 43
ἐστρατεύοντο δὲ οἵδε: ἐκ μὲν Πελοποννήσου Λακεδαιμόνιοι ἑκκαίδεκα νέας παρεχόμενοι, Κορίνθιοι δὲ τὸ αὐτὸπλήρωμα παρεχόμενοι καὶ ἐπ᾽ Ἀρτεμισίῳ: Σικυώνιοι δὲ πεντεκαίδεκα παρείχοντο νέας, Ἐπιδαύριοι δὲ δέκα, Τροιζήνιοι δὲ πέντε, Ἑρμιονέες δὲ τρεῖς, ἐόντες οὗτοι πλὴν Ἑρμιονέων Δωρικόν τε καὶ Μακεδνὸν ἔθνος, ἐξἘρινεοῦ τε καὶ Πίνδου καὶ τῆς Δρυοπίδος ὕστατα ὁρμηθέντες. οἱ δὲ Ἑρμιονέες εἰσὶ Δρύοπες, ὑπὸ Ἡρακλέος τεκαὶ Μηλιέων ἐκ τῆς νῦν Δωρίδος καλεομένης χώρης ἐξαναστάντες.

Now just look at the English translation:43.
The following took part in the war: from the Peloponnese, the Lacedaemonians provided sixteen ships; the Corinthians the same number as at Artemisium; the Sicyonians furnished fifteen ships, the Epidaurians ten, the Troezenians five, the Hermioneans three. All of these except the Hermioneans are Dorian and Macedonian and had last come from Erineus and Pindus and the Dryopian region. The Hermioneans are Dryopians, driven out of the country now called Doris by Herakles and the Malians.

The term 'ethnos' is ignored here and it loses context.

But going back to book 1, chapter 57
εἰ τοίνυν ἦν καὶ πᾶν τοιοῦτο τὸ Πελασγικόν, τὸ Ἀττικὸν ἔθνος ἐὸν Πελασγικὸνἅμα τῇ μεταβολῇ τῇ ἐς Ἕλληνας καὶ τὴν γλῶσσαν μετέμαθε.

If, then, all the Pelasgian stock spoke so, then the Attic nation, being of Pelasgian blood, must have changed its language too at the time when it became part of the Hellenes.


Here the Attic 'ethnos' becomes Attic 'nation' in the very same translation. But the 'Makednon' ethnos loses its properties in the translation. The actual translation is: Every one of these are Dorian belonging to the Makednon 'ethnos' except the Herminoneans, who are Dryopians.

P.S: You can see that the translations come from the Tufts University Perseus as every word is hyperlinked.
 
So, in the end, we cannot be sure of many things at that old age, except from what we got from written documents, and even in that case, you should take it with a grain of salt.
 
So, in the end, we cannot be sure of many things at that old age, except from what we got from written documents, and even in that case, you should take it with a grain of salt.

Well, most of the recorded history from old age is gone. Most of anything written before the 1st millennium CE is gone actually and probably almost everything ever written before 1 CE is gone. According to many Greek scholars, we have like 4% of ancient Greek texts available today. No idea how they came up with that number and what kind of research, but I've heard various researchers and university scholars stick to this figure. There's also the lost texts of people we have no clue that they had a written language and "we" have concluded that they had none and so on.

That being said, I think it's naive to consider that the surviving ones are not reliable enough. The reasons for survival are usually down to luck (survive the fires and other catastrophic events) and down to the victors' choice, that is the Church in most cases as they ruled for over a thousand years and in crucial moments for that historical documentation period with the fall of Rome and the Byzantine era and half of what we have is probably translated from Arabic during the same time. And again, I see no reason to change meanings of these texts. Maybe something got lost in translation but as long as we still have the original texts you can revise the translation. Which is the case with most Greek and Latin texts today where we see some languages are struggling to keep up with the context in some details.

I think it's far fetched to say that history has been tampered with if that's also part of what you're saying. It's more likely that some sensitive documents have not seen the light. And given that people didn't really care about ethnic differences until the 15th or 18th century CE, I think it's extreme to assume that people would change the ethnic roots of people. That's something we've seen happening in the 19th century CE and further on of course, but that's also the rise of nationalism period.

Everything is open of course because there is no way of knowing. But if you have such a mindset, you cannot pick which historic comments fit your idealism or opinion and say that everything else is unreliable.

Long story short, I disagree with 'grain of salt'. It's recorded history. Maybe over exaggerated but at least Herodotus always named his sources and it's easy to see who said what and why he said it. I do agree that we cannot know the whole truth. We barely know what really happened in the 60s and 70s because the whole history isn't out yet.