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unmerged(37351)

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Jan 1, 2005
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Karl V of Austria and Carlos I of Spain are the same guy, but if one of these countries are aggressive, the other one declares war and King Karl V of Austria and I of Spain make war against himself!

All the treatment of the son of Juana of Castille and Philip the Fair should be fixed (Karl/Carlos should control both countries or, at least, they should be allied; when he abdicates, Flandern and some possesions in France should go to Spain and, of course, should not make war to himself).
 
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Being allied does not mean they can be run by the same monarch, in the game system. The only way to do that would be to have one country inherit the other, which I believe is not historical. I realise the way it is is not ideal but there isn't really a way around it.
 
The main historicity problem and "bug" here is that Karl only ruled both countries for less than 2 years, from 1519 to 1521, when he gave the Austrian lands to his brother Ferdinand - which is the reason why Ferdinand, not Karl became King of Bohemia and Hungary in 1526.
Generally, EU2 of course has several historical personal unions represented badly, e.g. the one between Spain and Portugal or the Kalmar Union. However improving this is really more a goal for EU3 rather than a possible bugfix in EU2.
 
Well, because of that I say that, at least, they should be allies. The real problem is the constant wars (I've tried about 3 campaigns with the same result) between Spain and Austria when both are ruled by the same king. That's a nonsense.

About the lenght of the reign, Carlos I of Spain ruled Spain from 1516 to 1556 and, as Karl V, Austria from 1519 to 1556. It's in 1556 when he realizes of the complexity of an European Empire (his dream), he abdicates to his son Phillip (Spain, Flandern, some territories in France and, maybe, Milan (Phillip was the Duke of Milan)) and to Ferdinand (the crown of The Empire and the austrian territories), dividing the Empire in the Colonial Empire (for Spain) and the German Empire (for his brother). It looks to me as an event is needed ;-)

In 1521 Carlos-Karl goes to Spain, true, because of the Comuneros Revolt. But he doesn´t abdicate to Ferdinand until 1556. I hope not to be wrong, it´s my history (I'm Spanish) :D. I think Ferdinand was "the man" of Karl in the Empire and head of his own inheritance (Bohemia and Hungary) in the Empire, but he's not Spanish and I don´t know his history as Carlos'.

During those years, most of the gold of America and the armies of Spain were invested in the war against France (for the control of the German Empire) and protestants (German Princes) and, in fact, Spain and Austria were the same political entity (shared armies, economy, diplomacy, etc). Maybe the forced alliance are the best solution. I don´t know. I gess if with a couple of events the issue should be fixed; one for the alliance and another for the correct abdication of Karl (right now, all the Burgundy inheritance of Austria remains, for ever, as Austrian territories). :confused:
 
rechicero said:
About the lenght of the reign, Carlos I of Spain ruled Spain from 1516 to 1556 and, as Karl V, Austria from 1519 to 1556. It's in 1556 when he realizes of the complexity of an European Empire (his dream), he abdicates to his son Phillip (Spain, Flandern, some territories in France and, maybe, Milan (Phillip was the Duke of Milan)) and to Ferdinand (the crown of The Empire and the austrian territories), dividing the Empire in the Colonial Empire (for Spain) and the German Empire (for his brother).
In 1521 Carlos-Karl goes to Spain, true, because of the Comuneros Revolt. But he doesn´t abdicate to Ferdinand until 1556. I hope not to be wrong, it´s my history (I'm Spanish) :D.
No. This is just a very popular and common myth. By the treaty of Worms (concluded April 28th 1521) Charles ceded Upper and Lower Austria, Styria, Carinthia and Carnolia to Ferdinand, and by the Treaty of Brussels (signed February 2nd 1522) the rest of his German possessions, Tyrol, Wirtemberg and the Hapsburg holdings in Swabia and Alsace.
I think Ferdinand was "the man" of Karl in the Empire and head of his own inheritance (Bohemia and Hungary) in the Empire, but he's not Spanish and I don´t know his history as Carlos'.
Ferdinand was Charles' deputy in the Empire in his absence, yes. Charles of course kept the Imperial dignity while ceding the Austrian hereditary lands of the Hapsburgs to Ferdinand.
Btw, Ferdinand, who had been born and raised in Spain, was much more "Spanish" than his brother and was initially perceived as a foreigner (he did not speak any German when being awarded the lands, and never learned it perfectly) by his Austrian subjects. The whole point of the Comuneros revolt was that the Spanish hated Charles V and his Burgundian advisors and would have very much preferred Ferdinand as their king.