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Noxempire

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It's a funny thing in history that many many countries in Europe wanted to become or called themselves successors of the Roman Empire at some point.

to name a few:

-Mussolinis Italy
-The Holy Roman Empire
-Romania
-Russian Empire (espicially with Zar Nikolaus II)
-Sultanate of Rum
-Napoleon to some extent

The only legitimate successor (in my opinion) was the Byzantine Empire

Do you know any other Roman Empires?
 
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It's a funny thing in history that many many countries in Europe wanted to become the Roman Empire at some point.

to name a few:

-Mussolinis Italy
-The Holy Roman Empire
-Romania
-Russian Empire (espicially with Zar Nikolaus II)
-Sultanate of Rum
-Napoleon to some extent

The only legitimate successor was the Byzantine Empire, who was never accepted by anyone except for themselves or the Sasanids. This whole charade even inspired me to do a Spongebob Meme.


Do you know any other Roman Empires?

There's so many things wrong with this statement.
 
There's so many things wrong with this statement.

To elaborate my statement:

Mussolini: Wanted fulfill Roman ambitions by expanding Italy into a nation that surrounds the mediteranian
HRE: Otto I. proclaimed himself Imperator Romanum after he was crowned in Rome and even waged wars against Nikephoros Phokas II. because of that formality (and some territories in Italy)
Romania: It's in the name
Sultanate of Rum: It's in the Name
Napoleon: Compared himself to Caeser at multiple occasions, of course he did not want to make france a "Roman Empire", that's why I wrote "to some extent"
Russian Empire: The Russian Orthodox Monarchy is pretty much a copy of the Byzantine emperors, since the Byzantines proselytized Russia to orthodox Christianity. Nikolaus had ambitions to conquer Constantinople during WWI

The only legitimate successor was the Byzantine Empire
Byzantine Empire = Eastern Roman Empire. Eastern Roman Empire = Conitnuity of the Roman Empire

who was never accepted by anyone except for themselves or the Sasanids
I could be wrong there. However since the pope did not call them Romans, but instead HRE, there wasn't any reasons for the Europeans to call the Byzantines (which is a modern term by historians) romans. They instead referred to them greeks.

So WHERE exactly am I wrong?

I could've specified my statement a bit more like: "some people considred themselves romans or successors of the roman empire" but were is the fun in that?
 
To eloborate my statement:

Mussolini: Wanted fulfill Roman ambitions by expanding Italy into a nation that sorrounds the mediteranian
HRE: Otto I. proclaimed himself Imperator Romanum after he was crowned in Rome and even waged wars against Nikephoros Phokas II. because of that formality (and some territories in Italy)
Romania: It's in the name
Sultanate of Rum: It's in the Name
Napoleon: Compared himself to Caeser at multiple occasions, of course he did not want to make france a "Roman Empire", that's why I wrote "to some extent"
Russian Empire: The Russian Orthodox Monarchy is pretty much a copy of the Byzantine emperors, since the Byzantines proselytized Russia to orthodox Christianity. Nikolaus had ambitions to conquer Constantinopel during WWI

The only legitimate successor was the Byzantine Empire
Byzantine Empire = Eastern Roman Empire. Eastern Roman Empire = Conitnuity of the Roman Empire

who was never accepted by anyone except for themselves or the Sasanids
I could be wrong e

So WHERE exactly am I wrong?

The "who was never accepted by anyone except for themselves or the Sasanids" part is the most obvious. In general they were accepted in Eastern Europe. As for Romania they take their name from the Romans but hat is hardly the same as wishing to declare themselves the countinuity of the Roman Empire. As for if the ERE is the "only true successor" that depends on how you wish to judge that, after all one could argue that the Ottomans, or the Russians, inherited their empire depending on the standpoint. What makes the Ottomans so different from the cuntless others usurpers that had taken over Constantinople in the past? What disqualifies them?
 
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Padishah Suleiman was the bestest Roman :D
 
The "who was never accepted by anyone except for themselves or the Sasanids" part is the most obvious. In general they were accepted in Eastern Europé. As for Romania they take their name from the Romans but hat is hardly the same as wishing to declare themselves the countinuity of the Roman Empire. As for if the ERE is the "only true successor" that depends on how you wish to judge that, after all one could argue that the Ottomans, or the Russians, inherited their empire depending on the standpoint. What makes the Ottomans so different from the cuntless others usurpers that had taken over Contsntinople in the past? What disqualifies them?

"What disqualifies them?"

Well, I dunno, maybe not being outside Invaders? Not being the right ethos? Not calling themselves romans in the first place? Not having the same continuity? Not having the same culture, religion or administration?

Usurpers were common in Byzantine politics, in fact, about 29 of 98 emperors achieved the Throne by Usurpation. The Basileus was not the same as western Kings or Emperors.

Modern historians will ALWAYS tell you, that the Byzantine Empire IS the same Roman Empire like in antiquity, it just survived longer and changed several aspect of their culture. Why wouldn't it?

To Romania: I've argued with many Romanians about them on this subject. They are pretty certain, they have the right to call themselves romans since they speak a language pretty similar to Latin. They also did not "take" their name, they simply call themselves Romans (români) not Romanians in their own language, only their country is something like "România".

I bet you thought I would be some uneducated pleb, but I am certainly not as dumb as you want me to be.
 
"What disqualifies them?"

Well, I dunno, maybe not being outside Invaders? Not being the right ethos? Not calling themselves romans in the first place? Not having the same continuity? Not having the same culture, religion or administration?

Usurpers were common in Byzantine politics, in fact, about 29 of 98 emperors achieved the Throne by Usurpation. The Basileus was not the same as western Kings or Emperors.

Modern historians will ALWAYS tell you, that the Byzantine Empire IS the same Roman Empire like in antiquity, it just survived longer and changed several aspect of their culture. Why wouldn't it?

To Romania: I've argued with many Romanians about them on this subject. They are pretty certain, they have the right to call themselves romans since they speak a language pretty similar to Latin. They also did not "take" their name, they simply call themselves Romans (români) not Romanians in their own language, only their country is something like "România".

I bet you thought I would be some uneducated pleb, but I am certainly not as dumb as you want me to be.

My thoughts on your education are irrelevant to the subject. But seeing yourself as being of "Roman stock" doesn't mean that you see your realm as the Roman Empire, there is a crucial difference. As for the question of outside invaders then "The Roman Empire" would have ceased to exist a thousand years before the Fall of Constantinople, after all, at that point many of the emperors started off as foreingers. And ethos, culture and religion? You yourself said that the Romans changed that over the course of the years, so if it changed again how is that different. And the Ottomans, apart from claiming the legacy of Rome did adopt much of its culture and certainly administration.

Now bear in mind that I am not saying that they necessarily were the legitemate heirs to the Roman Empire, but saying as if there was some objective fact that they weren't is certainly not right.
 
Your points are debatable, however, I am friend of modern historians. The Byzantine Empire is not the Ottoman Empire or vice versa. They are too different by any means. Not being orthodox and greek, or being conquered by a foreign force being the crucial part. There is a difference between changing your population in a short time by conquest or through cultural and religious aversion after many centuries.

I am still concerned about your Statement "there is so much wrong". The only things I have seen so far are debatable, not factually wrong. So what EXACTLY do you dislike on my elaboration. Is it really that bad i did not specify my statement to "some people considred themselves romans or successors of the roman empire even though they are not roman by any means from my point of view". It's supposed to be funny, ya know.

I just made a little fun and memery about the whole "Glory of Rome" thing.
The whole Romania debate is a story for itself, since many historians doubt that Romanian origins really came from the province of Dacia. If you really hate Romania that much on this list, I will accept it as an "mistake".
However, I appreciate your calm and well written Statement.
 
Your points are debatable, however, I am friend of modern historians. The Byzantine Empire is not the Ottoman Empire or vice versa. They are too different by any means. Not being orthodox and greek, or being conquered by a foreign force being the crucial part. There is a difference between changing your population in a short time by conquest or through cultural and religious aversion after many centuries.

I am still concerned about your Statement "there is so much wrong". The only things I have seen so far are debatable, not factually wrong. So what EXACTLY do you dislike on my elaboration. Is it really that bad i did not specify my statement to "some people considred themselves romans or successors of the roman empire even though they are not roman by any means from my point of view". It's supposed to be funny, ya know.

I just made a little fun and memery about the whole "Glory of Rome" thing.
The whole Romania debate is a story for itself, since many historians doubt that Romanian origins really came from the province of Dacia. If you really hate Romania that much on this list, I will accept it as an "mistake".
However, I appreciate your calm and well written Statement.

I may have been a little harsh with the "so much is wrong", but I maintain that what I say is true. The Ottomans weren't the Byzantine Empire but they could be argued if you will to be the legitemate heirs to it, which is why I was annoyed at your off-handed dismissal of any other "heir" as illegitemate, they all have their reasons for claiming it and the very fact that it is debatable is what draws my ire with such a strong statement. But most of all it was the "only accepted by themselves and the Sassanids" part that motivated me to make a comment. For that one simply isn't true and gave the impression of being motivated more by a desire to paint a compelling story than an adherence to history.
 
Okay, I'll bite: what makes the other states illegitimate? The perspective of Constantinople (and its modern enthusiasts) isn't the only perspective that exists.
 
But most of all it was the "only accepted by themselves and the Sassanids" part that motivated me to make a comment.

Mh that was indeed a bit stupid.
I dont know that much about how the Turks and other eastern powers called the Byzantines.

I got too much carried away with the Pope and Otto I. dennouncing the Byzantines as greeks in the 10th century and the quite special rivalry between Byz and the persians. We still use this false term to this day, greeks call themselves Hellenes or something like that.

My apologies.
 
Mh that was indeed a bit stupid.
I dont know that much about how the Turks and other eastern powers called the Byzantines.

I got too much carried away with the Pope and Otto I. dennouncing the Byzantines as greeks in the 10th century and the quite special rivalry between Byz and the persians. We still use this false term to this day, greeks call themselves Hellenes or something like that.

My apologies.
The Muslim world has always called Byzantium "Rum", obviously meaning "Rome". A Roman is called a Rumi. There's even a sura in the Qur'an called "Ar-Rum", "The Romans".

EDIT:
Also interesting, Sikh scriptures (I can't remember if this is in SGGS or Bhai Gurdas' Varaan) refer to the Byzantine Romans as Rumi as well. This is despite Byzantium being extinct at the time of writing.
 
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Mh that was indeed a bit stupid.
I dont know that much about how the Turks and other eastern powers called the Byzantines.

I got too much carried away with the Pope and Otto I. dennouncing the Byzantines as greeks in the 10th century and the quite special rivalry between Byz and the persians. We still use this false term to this day, greeks call themselves Hellenes or something like that.

My apologies.

The ”Byzantine” term was a later invention in 1557. While they were still around they were called Greeks in the west.
 
Okay, I'll bite: what makes the other states illegitimate? The perspective of Constantinople (and its modern enthusiasts) isn't the only perspective that exists.

So in my opinion (and thats really just my opinion, its fine If you think otherwise)

The Ottomans were just way too different in many aspects too the Byzantines. Mainly because they are not greek, orthodox and did not treat the Byzantine legacy much respect, by you know, anihalating them and their culture. The greeks did not rebel without any reason.

If you really want to make the Ottomans the legitimate sucessors, you could do it. But only and ONLY because they conquered their territory and took over some of their aspects. The Idea of the Basileus and Sultan are still very different, so are Islam and orthodoxy.

HRE is quite simple. Otto just declared himself a Roman Emperor because the Title meant Power. Declaring yourself Roman while the other Roman Empire is litteraly east of you doesnt make sense in my opinion.

Romania: Please just google the debate, its to complex to sum up.

Russian Empire:
Probably the Most convincing one. The Zardom and Orthodox Christianity is closely tied together. Its very similar to Byzantium culturewise.

Rum Seljuks:

I don't know that much about them, but its basically the same like the Ottomans.

So what im saying is, that greek culture and orthodoxy are a necesity to call yourself a true sucessor of the Roman Empire, since the Byzantine Empire is still the same Roman Empire like in the 5th century, just with more greek influence since the Latin west fell into chaos.

The term Rhomaioi is still used by some older Greeks and there is even a fascist Party that wants to retake Istanbul.

Greek and Byzantium are tied together.
 
Neither the culture nor the religion of the Empire in 1400 AD were those of the Roman Empire at its height so it is pretty arbitrary to use that criteria to exclude the Ottomans or Franks/Germans. The Papal state at least kept the language and Rome itself so I would take their word regarding who was the legitimate Emperor. Excluding foreign invaders from the title would imho be a better argument for refuting the Ottomans and Franks from the title.
 
So in my opinion (and thats really just my opinion, its fine If you think otherwise)

The Ottomans were just way too different in many aspects too the Byzantines. Mainly because they are not greek, orthodox and did not treat the Byzantine legacy much respect, by you know, anihalating them and their culture. The greeks did not rebel without any reason.

If you really want to make the Ottomans the legitimate sucessors, you could do it. But only and ONLY because they conquered their territory and took over some of their aspects. The Idea of the Basileus and Sultan are still very different, so are Islam and orthodoxy.
Why does Rome have to be Greek and Orthodox? The earlier Romans weren't either of those things and were treated in contempt by the Christian Byzantines who proscribed their rituals and attacked their monuments. The argument for the Ottomans is that just as the first Rome was Latin and pagan, and the second Rome was Greek and Orthodox, the third Rome was Ottoman and Muslim.

HRE is quite simple. Otto just declared himself a Roman Emperor because the Title meant Power. Declaring yourself Roman while the other Roman Empire is litteraly east of you doesnt make sense in my opinion.
The Pope crowned Otto I though, and in the eyes of his contemporary Catholics that's as legitimate as it gets. The Pope was the Vicar of Christ, and he could crown any emperor he saw fit. Especially when the eastern emperors weren't exactly loyal devotees of the line of saint Peter,

Romania: Please just google the debate, its to complex to sum up.
I don't think Romanians actually claim the empire itself though, they claim descent from a Latin-based Roman civilisation but they've never had an emperor of their own.

Russian Empire:
Probably the Most convincing one. The Zardom and Orthodox Christianity is closely tied together. Its very similar to Byzantium culturewise.
But including no actual Roman territory. Not much more legitimate than the others, the connection here is through Christianity, which the HRE can also argue.

Rum Seljuks:

I don't know that much about them, but its basically the same like the Ottomans.
Not sure if they ever claimed the empire either. Their state existed within the country of Rum, the Roman lands, and ruled over Romans (meaning Greeks), but as to the empire itself I don't know.

So what im saying is, that greek culture and orthodoxy are a necesity to call yourself a true sucessor of the Roman Empire, since the Byzantine Empire is still the same Roman Empire like in the 5th century, just with more greek influence since the Latin west fell into chaos.
Why though? Hadrian wasn't Greek or a Christian. He would have been spinning in his grave at the notion if the Christians hadn't turned it into a castle for the Pope.

The term Rhomaioi is still used by some older Greeks and there is even a fascist Party that wants to retake Istanbul.
That a small number of Greeks still think they're Romans doesn't do anything to invalidate the claims of the others. After all, isn't there also a Roman Catholic Church?

Greek and Byzantium are tied together.
But not necessarily Greece and the rest of Rome's heritage.
 
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"Why does Rome have to be Greek and Orthodox? The earlier Romans weren't either of those things and were treated in contempt by the Christian Byzantines who proscribed their rituals and attacked their monuments. The argument for the Ottomans is that just as the first Rome was Latin and pagan, and the second Rome was Greek and Orthodox, the third Rome was Ottoman and Muslim"

The Ottoman Empire is an instance on it's own, it's not a Roman empire.

They had their own culture and did not inherrit those from the romans. They originate from east Asia, invaded the Byzantines and basically stole their Land.

There is just no continuity. The Roman Empire never ceased to exist until 1453. Why would they write that in the history books? Every historian would say, the end of rome was 1453. Because the Ottomans are not Romans or the Roman Empire by any means. This was no Usurpation, this was simply conquest.
Yeah, not all Roman Emperors were Italian, not all of Roman history was one Religion. But that makes no difference, since they were still part of the SAME empire, and those changes were part of cultural aversion and not foreign influence by war and conquest.

When that is not just occupation by a foreign force, what is it then? Do Country Boarders don't exist anymore or what? This was not a civil war, like it happened before.

I have no clue what you are talking about Hadrian. He ruled until 117, the Empire was not even divided back then and the main Language was Latin. So why would he even have spoken Greek? When you are talking about the Byzantine Empire, it's ONLY the Eastern part after Western Rome ceased to exist. In the 7th century they adapted Greek Language.
Every Byzantine Emperor spoke Greek and they all followed the same tradition, with some minor exceptions.

You are also forgetting that Roman was not Roman back in the day. Of course not every Roman was born in Rome, but there was something like citizenship.

The Pope did not hate the Byzantines by any means. He just supported Otto since he kinda occupied Rome and helped him to rise to power. By the way, the Byzantine Empire was also catholic at this time, the great christian schism was in the 11th century not 10th.

Have you ever thought the roman catholic church is called that way, because it's located in R O M E and founded BY ROMANS, while the empire still existed? So what makes it illegitimate?

Russia had heavy greek and orthodox influence, which makes them pretty suitable candidate. They are not a direct successor, they are just the closest what exist culturewise. Oh and btw. the Crim was part of the Byzantine Empire at some Point. Keep in mind that Russian Orthodoxy is different to Greek.

If Turkey is Rome, why did they rename all their cities into their language? Greece kept the Byzantine names. Why do they use the Moon, not the Eagle?

The Patriarchy of Constantinople is something you should be researching. They still use Byzantine Eagle and practice Byzantine Traditions. The Byzantine Empire never really ceased to exist.
 
"Why does Rome have to be Greek and Orthodox? The earlier Romans weren't either of those things and were treated in contempt by the Christian Byzantines who proscribed their rituals and attacked their monuments. The argument for the Ottomans is that just as the first Rome was Latin and pagan, and the second Rome was Greek and Orthodox, the third Rome was Ottoman and Muslim"

The Ottoman Empire is an instance on it's own, it's not a Roman empire.

They had their own culture and did not inherrit those from the romans. They originate from east Asia, invaded the Byzantines and basically stole their Land.

There is just no continuity. The Roman Empire never ceased to exist until 1453. Why would they write that in the history books? Every historian would say, the end of rome was 1453. Because the Ottomans are not Romans or the Roman Empire by any means. This was no Usurpation, this was simply conquest.
Yeah, not all Roman Emperors were Italian, not all of Roman history was one Religion. But that makes no difference, since they were still part of the SAME empire, and those changes were part of cultural aversion and not foreign influence by war and conquest.

When that is not just occupation by a foreign force, what is it then? Do Country Boarders don't exist anymore or what? This was not a civil war, like it happened before.
Why is it not a usurpation? A foreign king conquers his enemy's capital city and then claims the very same title that the previous occupiers had: Kaiser-e-Rum, Caesar of the Romans. That he's also the Sultan of the Turks etc etc is a complication, but not necessarily an invalidating one.


I have no clue what you are talking about Hadrian. He ruled until 117, the Empire was not even divided back then and the main Language was Latin. So why would he even have spoken Greek? When you are talking about the Byzantine Empire, it's ONLY the Eastern part after Western Rome ceased to exist. In the 7th century they adapted Greek Language.
Every Byzantine Emperor spoke Greek and they all followed the same tradition, with some minor exceptions.
I mean that the earlier incarnation of the empire under the old caesars of Rome was most definitely not Christian or Greek, and would have shuddered in revolt at the very notion of this. Therefore Roman-ness does not depend on religion or nationality, if we accept Byzantium's claim to being a continuation of Rome that is. I picked Hadrian specifically because he was the one who had his tomb turned into a Papal fortress and I could use that to improve the "spinning in his grave" quip, but really it applies to all the pre-Christian emperors.

You are also forgetting that Roman was not Roman back in the day. Of course not every Roman was born in Rome, but there was something like citizenship.
That Rome was diverse only serves to lessen the importance of Christianity, not increase it.

The Pope did not hate the Byzantines by any means. He just supported Otto since he kinda occupied Rome and helped him to rise to power. By the way, the Byzantine Empire was also catholic at this time, the great christian schism was in the 11th century not 10th.
Pre-schism Christianity was far from a united Christianity. The Papacy in Rome and the Patriarchate and the Emperor in the east were still starkly divided even when they weren't outright at each other's throats. Iconoclasm and the failure of the emperor to protect the Exarchate of Ravenna saw to that, and it's not surprising that with the empire apparently on its knees the Popes turned to Pepin of the Franks for protection instead. Later with the empire in an even worse state under the unpopular usurper Irene the Pope went one step further and crowned Charlemagne as the true emperor, which obviously only served to worsen relations between Byzantium and the west. Charlemagne's coronation would be the foundation of a new western Roman imperial tradition that would culminate in the coronation of Otto and the formation of a permanent German-dominated Roman Empire in the west.

Have you ever thought the roman catholic church is called that way, because it's located in R O M E and founded BY ROMANS, while the empire still existed? So what makes it illegitimate?
I'm not saying it's illegitimate. Quite the opposite, the Catholic church has one of the best claims to the Roman name in my opinion. I'm saying that the use of the name "Roman" by one group of people doesn't disprove the assertions of another, so Greeks calling themselves Romans doesn't mean that Byzantium was the sole Roman imperial claimant.

Russia had heavy greek and orthodox influence, which makes them pretty suitable candidate. They are not a direct successor, they are just the closest what exist culturewise. Oh and btw. the Crim was part of the Byzantine Empire at some Point. Keep in mind that Russian Orthodoxy is different to Greek.
Cultural and religious proximity might be a fine enough argument from the Russians' perspective. Or even from the former Byzantines of Greece who still look up to the eastern Church. But the Ottomans had a different argument, which was through the right of conquest and their forcible usurpation of the empire and its capital city directly.

If Turkey is Rome, why did they rename all their cities into their language? Greece kept the Byzantine names. Why do they use the Moon, not the Eagle?
And why did the Greeks rename all the Roman cities into their barbarian language (remember that early Romans saw Greeks as awful barbarians and foreigners just as much as Ottomans were seen as such by Byzantines) instead of keeping civilised Roman Latin names that Julius Caesar would have been proud of? Why did they use the Chi-Rho and the Cross as their symbols?

Not that modern-day Turks have any claim on Roman heritage, the Ottoman phase of the Roman empire (if such a phase could be said to exist) definitely died in 1921. The Ottoman identity is completely gone.

The Patriarchy of Constantinople is something you should be researching. They still use Byzantine Eagle and practice Byzantine Traditions. The Byzantine Empire never really ceased to exist.
The Patriarch of Constantinople is most definitely not a Roman Emperor. He's a patriarch, exclusively a religious leader, same as the Pope in the west. In fact the Patriarchate's continued existence is due to the fact that the Ottomans patronised and supported it, both to continue older Roman traditions and (more importantly) to control their Greek subjects.
 
Why does Rome have to be Greek and Orthodox? The earlier Romans weren't either of those things and were treated in contempt by the Christian Byzantines who proscribed their rituals and attacked their monuments. The argument for the Ottomans is that just as the first Rome was Latin and pagan, and the second Rome was Greek and Orthodox, the third Rome was Ottoman and Muslim.


The Pope crowned Otto I though, and in the eyes of his contemporary Catholics that's as legitimate as it gets. The Pope was the Vicar of Christ, and he could crown any emperor he saw fit. Especially when the eastern emperors weren't exactly loyal devotees of the line of saint Peter,


I don't think Romanians actually claim the empire itself though, they claim descent from a Latin-based Roman civilisation but they've never had an emperor of their own.


But including no actual Roman territory. Not much more legitimate than the others, the connection here is through Christianity, which the HRE can also argue.


Not sure if they ever claimed the empire either. Their state existed within the country of Rum, the Roman lands, and ruled over Romans (meaning Greeks), but as to the empire itself I don't know.


Why though? Hadrian wasn't Greek or a Christian. He would have been spinning in his grave at the notion if the Christians hadn't turned it into a castle for the Pope.


That a small number of Greeks still think they're Romans doesn't do anything to invalidate the claims of the others. After all, isn't there also a Roman Catholic Church?


But not necessarily Greece and the rest of Rome's heritage.

the russians also claimed dynastic succession from the roman empire because one of the moskovite grand dukes married the sister of a claimaint of the imperial throne after constantinople fell to the ottomans