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Female monarchs?

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Originally posted by Dinsdale
and I'd love to see the geneology linking to this supposed Morrocan Princess. Windsor has absolutely no lineage to the Royal Family of England in the 14th Century.
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no, the morrocan princess did not marry into plantagenets, she is somehow related to the windsor. i read this 6 months ago as a curiosity in the morning news, although i find much funnier those stories when women sue their hubands on taiwan for lack of sexual attention i somehow memorized this one...

actually, i used a determination of black used in at least 13 states in us... once you go black you never go back...
just a few laughs on the wasps...

and i'm 1/16 czech and maybe 1/32 turkish BUT THAT WAS NEVER PROVEN!
 
Originally posted by Dinsdale
and I'd love to see the geneology linking to this supposed Morrocan Princess. Windsor has absolutely no lineage to the Royal Family of England in the 14th Century.
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I assume you mean "Portugal" and not "England"?

Actually it does, mainly through Edmund of York's marriage to Isabel of Castile, the daughter of Pedro the Cruel (whose ancestry had quite a bit of Portuguese blood - including his mother who was a Portuguese princess). The entire house of York, including Elizabeth of York, the wife of Henry VII, were descendants of this marriage. Their daughter Margaret married James IV of Scotland, and the houses of Stuart, Hanover, and Windsor spring from that marriage.

Another line of descent is through Wittelsbach connections. This is through Friedrich of the Palatinate (the maternal grandfather of George I) and through the Bavarian mother of Katherine of Valois (not in her capacity as the wife of Henry V, but as grandmother of Henry VII). There were periodic marriages into the Iberian royal families by the Wittelsbachs, which brought some more Portuguese ancestry into the current British royal house.
 
Originally posted by Dinsdale
I had no idea that either Hanover or Windsor had direct blood connections to the Stuarts. :confused:
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James I had a daughter, Elizabeth, who married Friedrich V of the Palatinate (the infamous "Winter King of Bohemia"). Their daughter Sophia married Ernst August of Hannover and was the mother of George I of Great Britian. The Hanover claim to the British throne was through this route. When the Act of Settlement was passed in 1701, barring any Catholics from the British throne, the nearest Protestant heir after the future Queen Anne was the Electress Sophia of Hannover, who was thus declared heir should none of Anne's children survive her (which is what happened, though Anne tried her best to produce a healthy child). The Electress Sophia barely missed out in becoming Queen of Great Britian, dying only a few weeks before Queen Anne did, and thus her son George I inherited the throne after Anne's death.
 
Thanks Demetrious!

Now, if you have the info handy; if by a long stretch the Act of Settlement had allowed converted Catholics, but not the heirs of James II, who would have been a closer heir than the Hannoverians? (assuming the candidate agreed to convert)
 
Originally posted by Dinsdale
Thanks Demetrious!

Now, if you have the info handy; if by a long stretch the Act of Settlement had allowed converted Catholics, but not the heirs of James II, who would have been a closer heir than the Hannoverians? (assuming the candidate agreed to convert)
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The throne would have passed to the descendants of Henrietta Maria, the daughter of Charles I and sister of Charles II and James II, who married Philippe, the Duke of Orleans. They had two daughters, the eldest of whom (Anne Marie) married into the house of Savoy. It is through this line that the current Stuart pretender, the Duke of Bavaria, derives his claim.
 
Will the game reflect the "Lex Salia" which disabled women the access to the French throne?
 
Originally posted by queenimperiale
I thought the House of Hanover is the House of Windsor. I was always thought that, due to WWI and WWII and their German links, the House of Hanover became the House of Windsor.
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The House of Windsor is the House of Saxe-Coburg-Gotha, descendents of Vicky of Hannover and his husband who was member of this house.
 
The screenshot provides some detail into how this question will be handled but I don't know enogh about history to figure out exactly what the different laws entail in case of female leadership.
 
And how does marrying into an Iberian Noble family equal to having "Moorish" blood, and furthermore, how does Moorish equal black? People have some very weird ideas IMHO.
 
Originally posted by Ebusitanus
And how does marrying into an Iberian Noble family equal to having "Moorish" blood, and furthermore, how does Moorish equal black? People have some very weird ideas IMHO.
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No people are just generally very ignorant...
 
Hatshepsut the Avenger

Women could do great things in charge even over a pre-feudal society, vide Aethelflaed, who kicked considerable arse across Wales and the Danish Midlands (sacked Brecon, stormed Derby and Leicester, received the submission of York shortly before her death).

I trust the developers to keep this historical, a woman succeeding should be a freak occurrence. Not the 'Europa 1400' approach where a woman - married woman no less - could be a Catholic archbishop etc...
 
What was the range of Salic Law anyway? Seems to be pretty much limited to royal France -- and, even so, French fiefs like Aquitaine, Anjou, Provence, Brittany, Burgundy, etc. females ruled at least up until they married (& sometimes beyond that).

Certainly England, Scotland, Denmark, Portugal, Castile, Naples, Aragon, Navarre, Naples, Hungary, Poland, Tyrol, Luxemburg, Tuscany, etc. had women who remained rulers despite being married.

Even testesterone-laden Jerusalem had ruling queens (Sybil, Isabella, Mary, Yolande), the title usually being passed on to sisters & daughters before husbands (at least up until 1225).

And if I start counting regents, the women just multiply.
 
Originally posted by Abdul Goatherd
What was the range of Salic Law anyway?
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The easy answer, when it comes to the game period is: None whatsover!

The Salic Law (Lex Salica) was taken down under Clovis in the late 5th century, to list the old laws of the Salian Franks. It deals mainly with civil law and monetary compensations with respect to man and land (as an example the compensation (wehrgeld) for killing a Frank was twice as high as that for killing a Roman). The law applied to the land of the Salian Franks which at the time wasn't even in France...

The Salic Law was reformulated in Charlemagnean France and did still apply in the 9th century, but it disappeared slowly as it was incorporated into local common law.

The part of the Salic Law that has been used in the French succession strife known as the Hundred Years War (;)) is the part which deals with inheritance rules for allodial lands: "But of Salic land no portion of the inheritance shall come to a woman: but the whole inheritance of the land shall come to the male sex."

The first time the Salic Law is mentioned in relation to the Crown of France is in 1410, almost 100 years after the first time a female heir was passed over for a male (1316, when the six years old daughter of Louis X was pushed aside by her uncle Philippe).
 
Originally posted by queenimperiale
Havard, would you know whether or not if the images change depending on the ruler (seen in the screenshot)?
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I don't know, but I would assume so given Johans mention of dynamic, DNA-dependant images :)
 
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