Further points to be made in favor of French 'disunity' are that, French noble rights were more strongly held by the nobility and the economic factors were more in their favor for defending these rights (such as favorable economic conditions as well as population base). Another point that showed that nobility rights and possessions were a danger to the central authority of the crown was that Louis XIV built Versailles in the late 1600's to help house and thereby keep scrutiny on these unruly dukes and princes. This clearly showed that the major magnates of France were still capable of challenging the crown even as late as the 1600's. (NOTE- That the Bourbon lands also included the province of Auverge. These lands, in the early 1500's, belonged to Charles of Bourbon.) BiB has made points that conclude that the conditions in Spain were much the same as that of France, and therefore, the game should remain the same. The difference is that Spain did not suffer the same disunity in the same period. Granted, the Iberian peninsula was in disunity in earlier centuries, but the union of Castile and Aragon seems to have taken hold much more strongly than in France and therefore did not suffer the same civil disturbances (revolts) that the French suffered (most French revolts concentrated in the 1500's mostly). Thank you for your time and efforts..