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Latin

Awomaru,

Well, Latin was a bit more widespread and important than Russian and the Catholic church
did their best not to let anyone else learn how to read and write in Catholic areas. My point being you went to a Catholic school to learn to read and write and latin has always been the language of the church.

Not to beat a dead horse, but i am curious,was Russian the language of the Lithuanian court or was Old Slavonic which is quite similiar to Russian and was the language of the Russian Orthodox Church?

Mike
 
As far as I can tell russian from old slavonic (and I can't :)) it was old slavonic just in transition to russian. Of course it was lanuage of Orthodox Church too. And yes, Lithuanian dukes tried to take over control of Orthodox Church, but unsuccesfully.
 
If I could be so bold as to guide us back onto the topic of EUII.....

I favor a simple over-arching Baltic culture for Lithuania, the Latvian territories <Courland and Livland> and Prussia. This is for both gameplay and historical reasons, though I do agree that Lithuanian and Latvian <the old Baltic Prussians were completely assimilated by the Germans, so I don't mention them> cultures developed along dissimilar routes, with Lithuanians influenced by the Slavs and Poles, and the Latvians by the Germans.

Belarus should most definitely be Lithuanian/Baltic culture. The province of Belarus as it exists in EUII was most certainly an integral part of the Lithuanian tribal territories even before the union under Grand Duke Mindaugas. Welikia was almost certainly of Russian/Slavonic culture. The territory of Volyn is somewhat a toss-up, but I believe that area was also culturally Lithuanian. Of course, an arguement probably exists to make Volyn Ruthenian. Mozyr should most likely be Russian in culture, considering that area is a prominent part of "White Russia" historically. That is, if you think you can apply Russian culture to the White Russians.

I also think there is a persuasive arguement to be made for giving Lithuania russian as a state culture <And not giving it to a united P-L>.

Also, I think we should look into renaming post-Union of Lublin Poland as "Poland-Lithuania" or "The Commonwealth". =P
 
Lotus, we both know that provinces in that area are completly messed up. Imo, Lithuania itslef should be baltic, while all other currently Lithuanian provinces should be Ruthenian (and not Russian)
 
Surely you aren't saying that ONLY the province of Lithuania was of baltic culture within the GDL? I agree that perhaps some of the provinces should revert to Ruthenian/Russian, but I think at least Belarus and Volyn should remain of baltic culture.
 
Originally posted by TheLotus
Surely you aren't saying that ONLY the province of Lithuania was of baltic culture within the GDL? I agree that perhaps some of the provinces should revert to Ruthenian/Russian, but I think at least Belarus and Volyn should remain of baltic culture.
No, not really. While Belarus province is strangely placed (it should be sout-east of Lithuania, not north-east, as you know), it certainly wasn't Baltic in culture, but Ruthenian. Same goes for Volyn, which is even further south, both on EU II map and in reality (in reality it isn't even Belarussian, but Ukrainian province)


So, yes, only small part of GD was of baltic culture. Though since 1411, GD had control of half of the Kurland province, which can't be represented on EU II map. This half was also Lithuanian culture (well, it's baltic in EU II)

You stated that the province of Belarus as it is on EU II map should be Lithuanian. Yes, partly. Meaning western half of it. But half of province which is called Lithuania shouldn't be Lithuanian, exactly the south-eastern part. But since the map can't be corrected...
 
Since we have to deal with the provinces made by Paradox, we obviously have to deal with province locations related to history when we decide what cultures go where, not actual province names. While I agree with you that only a small part of the GDL was actually baltic/lithuanian in culture, I maintain that it's not as small as you're saying.

While I believe there is an arguement for making Volyn a ruthenian province, Belarus as it exists on the EUII map <not necessarily in reality, though that is a different arguement> was most certainly an integral part of Lithuanian territory.
 
Hmmm. i don't really know... let me take a look at historical and EU II map...


oh, jesus. I'm astonished, how one could make such mistakes:rolleyes:

If we go by areas, then only the northern tip of province of Lithuania (covered by GD state sign on EU II map and some more) is ethnic Lithuanian territory. About 1/3 of Belarus province was ethnic Lithuanian, too. To add insult to injury, most of Lithuanian inhabited lands are in Kurland province, with decent amount of Memel and Prussia beign Lithuanian, too. I won't even comment on EU II map:rolleyes:
 
Originally posted by Maur13

Errr, wrong again.


Well, OK then, I'll just take your word for it... ;)


Originally posted by Maur13

For example, Belorussian means 'white Russian'.
That's not terribly surprising, given that the English word "Belorussian" is simply an Anglicised version of the Belarus words for "White" and "Russian". But, then, my post clearly states that Belorussian = White Russian, doesn't it?


Originally posted by Maur13

Those terms may be confusing in English, but they aren't that much in Slavic languages (at least in Polish).




Most people would also make that claim of English. However, they would be mistaken. For example...

In the Bloomsbury Dictionary of Languages, we read on page 52 of "...'Western Russian' or 'Ruthenian', an early form of Belorussian mixed with Old Slavonic...". Here, the dictionary is clearly associating 'Ruthenian' with Lithuanian (as opposed to just Polish) Rus. Yet, we read on page 82 that "...a Belorussian translation of the bible, by F. Skaryna, had been printed in Prague in 1517-19. There are important texts from the 16th century, including chronicles of Lithuania." Now, the dictionary seems to be referring to the language of the Lithuanian Rus as 'Belorussian' (i.e. White Russian), rather than 'Ruthenian'. On page 565, the dictionary seems to be positing a clear, 3-way split: "The Eastern Slavonic languages (Belorussian, Ukranian and Russian) were the last to differentiate, as the medieval Russian principalities became tributary to Lithuania, Poland and the Golden Horde. Ruthenian, spoken to the South-West of the Carpathians, may be considered a dialect of Ukranian-but some claim for it the status of a language." Confused? There's more...

Geofrey Hosking (winner of the LA Times book award for history, Professor of Russian studies at the University of London), in his award winning "Russia and the Russians" uses the term "Ruthenian" on pages 166 and 169 to refer to Rus under Polish sovereignty, then stays consistent on page 336, referring to "Ruthenian" as a word used in the Hapsburg Empire to mean "Ukranian culture" and on page 305 uses the terms "Polish", "Russian", "Belorussian" and "Ukranian" (while writing of the dissolution of Poland) in clear contradiction to each other. So far, so good. But then, on page 60, "...for some centuries known as Rusin or Ruthenian, and today as Ukranian and Belorussian", seeming not to distinguish between Belorussian and Ruthenian.

Even the venerable Encyclopaedia Britannica cannot manage to be consistent. Looking under "White Russian Language", we find "See Belarus language". Under Belarus (in the MACROPEDIA), we get "During this epoch of Lithuanian domination, the Belorussian language and nationality began to take shape." That seems clear enough, and indeed under 'Ruthenian', we have " 'Ruthenian', also called 'Ruthene', any of those Ukranians who were formerly Polish or Austrian and Austro-Hungarian subjects". Once again, nice and clear. But, it's too good to be true. Later, the encyclopaedia refers to Ruthenians as being "first under Lithuanian sovereignty, then Polish". Just as in the other sources, 'Ruthenian' is used sometimes to refer only to those Rus under medieval Polish sovereignty, at other times to both Polish and Lithuanian Rus.

The clearest definition I have come across is in the Anchor edition of the 'Atlas of the World' (Atlas Zur Wettgeschichte), Vol. I, by Herman Kinder and Werner Hilgermann, who state on page 203 that "Divergent political and cultural developments led to the dissolution of the ancient unity of the Rus people into 'Ukranians' under Polish sovereignty, 'White Russians' under Lithuanian sovereignty and 'Great Russians' under Tartar sovereignty." Although, Kinder and Werner use 'Ruthenian' in its most limited sense to refer only to the Red Russians (i.e. those Polish Rus of the Lemberg-Halicz-Kolomes area, (page 200) ), I use their scheme, substituting 'Ruthenian' for 'Ukranian' in Fluid Cultures. To avoid further squabbling, I may just switch to 'Ukranian' in future versions.
 
Originally posted by TheLotus

Belarus should most definitely be Lithuanian/Baltic culture. The province of Belarus as it exists in EUII was most certainly an integral part of the Lithuanian tribal territories even before the union under Grand Duke Mindaugas.


Your political facts are right, but as surprising as it may seem, Belarus was never Lithuanian in culture. See, for example, the aforementioned Norman F. Cantor ( Encyclopaedia of the Middle Ages, p.285 ): "Beginning in the twelfth century, Lithuanian forces took over part of Slav territories (in present-day Russia)," and, "In the thirteenth century, a warlord known as Mindaugas united Lithuania and helped create a Lithuanian 'state' ". Note the order: FIRST the Lithuanian warlords expanded into White Russia, THEN Lithuania became a 'state' (it only became a real state in the age of Gedyminas). In other words, White Russians were already part of Lithuania prior to its formation. Although it's true that Belarus was an integral part of Lithuania from the start, the Lithuanians were not the cultural senior partners in that arrangement and did not colonise the White Russians. As with Ruthenian being the Lithuanian state language, this one is easy to back up with a multitude of sources besides Cantor.

BTW, Mindaugas was not a Grand Duke. He is the only leader of Lithuania who is called 'King' (though whether he ever used such a title at the time is dubious).

Originally posted by TheLotus

The territory of Volyn is somewhat a toss-up, but I believe that area was also culturally Lithuanian.


It was a Russian principality before being conquered by Lithuania (part of Galicia-Volynia at the time). And, once again, the Russians in question did not become Lithuanian in culture or language. In fact, Russian (i.e. Ruthenian) was already the state language of Lithuania by then.

Originally posted by TheLotus

I also think there is a persuasive arguement to be made for giving Lithuania russian as a state culture <And not giving it to a united P-L>.


In Fluid Cultures, White Russian is the state culture of Lithuania (with Lithuanian second). I personally find it absurd for Lithuania not to have Russian state culture.

Originally posted by TheLotus

Also, I think we should look into renaming post-Union of Lublin Poland as "Poland-Lithuania" or "The Commonwealth". =P

I agree with you 100%, but the problem is that it would take up another tag, and tags are in short supply. I wish they'd given us a "change country name" command... :(
 
Re: Re: What?!?

Originally posted by Maur13

'Turks' (i assume you mean Mongols, called Tartars here)

I think he means Turks. Although "Tatar/Tartar" was sometimes used as a general term for Mongol-Turkic tribes, neither is calling Mongols "Turks" as strange as it seems, nor were the Tatars of Russia Mongols (they were Turkic).

Norman F. Cantor, author of 'Civilization in the Middle Ages' (the most widely read popular medieval history in the world), Rhodes Fellow and Fulbright Scholar, states on p.369 of Europe in the 14th and 15th Centuries, that "Eventually, the Tatars were successful in Turkicizing the Horde". David Morgan (Professor of African and Oriental studies at the University of London) states in "The Mongols", on page 142, that "...evidence of the speed with which the Mongols were absorbed by the Turkish-speaking population is provided by the Golden Horde's coinage: Mongolian was replaced by Turkish on coins as early as the reign of Tode-Monke (1280-7)". In any case, he also states, on page 56, that "The tribes of Mongolia in the twelfth century have to be described as 'Turko-Mongol', since it is by no means clear in all cases which were Turkish and which Mongol".
 
Last edited:
loseth> Of course I agree that Russians weren't Lithuanian in culture. I was merely speaking of the province of Belarus in EUII, which lies north of the province of Lithuania. Also, White Russians were close, if not ethnically, but socially and politically to Lithuanians <some Belorussians I know refer to the GDL as the "Lithuanian-Belarussian state">. Also, about Fluid Cultures, I find it extremely dodgy <to use a British-ism> that White Russian would be the "first" state culture of Lithuania. The Lithuanian magnates/boyars/nobles who ran most of Lithuania were not Russian-ized, and the illiterate peasants of Lithuania were most certainly not. It is obvious that Lithuanian and White Russian cultures influenced each other, but I cannot see the White Russian culture as dominant <besides the use of Old Slavonic as a language of state>. Of course, right here I'm defining "state culture" as "dominant culture", but if you're referring to "state culture" literally as the culture of state as opposed to the general population, then feel free to correct me.

Maur> I'd disagree with you, just because historical Lithuanian tribes spread farther eastward and southward than the modern Lithuanian state would suggest. I'd say much of Lithuania province is Lithuanian anyway <The rest would probably be considered Yatwingian territory, a Baltic tribe assimilated by the Lithuanians anyway>. I'm 90% certain that the area of EUII Belarus was at least half occupied by Baltic peoples.
 
Originally posted by TheLotus
Maur> I'd disagree with you, just because historical Lithuanian tribes spread farther eastward and southward than the modern Lithuanian state would suggest. I'd say much of Lithuania province is Lithuanian anyway <The rest would probably be considered Yatwingian territory, a Baltic tribe assimilated by the Lithuanians anyway>. I'm 90% certain that the area of EUII Belarus was at least half occupied by Baltic peoples.
Well... both Lithuania and Belarus province borders Dnieper river, is limited from north by Dzwina river, and by upper Niemen in the west. There were no Lithuanians (well, bulk of population anyway) south of Dzwina AND east of Niemen springs. And this area is over half of those provinces on EU map. It's actually core Belarus territory, and was inhabited by Ruthenians (Belorusins, if you prefer. Don't call them Russians, at least)

In XV century, Lithuanians didn't live much east of Vilnius already.
 
Re: Re: Re: What?!?

Originally posted by loseth


I think he means Turks. Although "Tatar/Tartar" was sometimes used as a general term for Mogol-Turkic tribes, neither is calling Mongols "Turks" as strange as it seems, not were the Tatars of Russia Mongols (they were Turkic).

Norman F. Cantor, author of 'Civilization in the Middle Ages' (the most widely read popular medieval history in the world), Rhodes Fellow and Fulbright Scholar, states on p.369 of Europe in the 14th and 15th Centuries, that "Eventually, the Tatars were successful in Turkicizing the Horde". David Morgan (Professor of African and Oriental studies at the University of London) states in "The Mongols", on page 142, that "...evidence of the speed with which the Mongols were absorbed by the Turkish-speaking population is provided by the Golden Horde's coinage: Mongolian was replaced by Turkish on coins as early as the reign of Tode-Monke (1280-7)". In any case, he also states, on page 56, that "The tribes of Mongolia in the twelfth century have to be described as 'Turko-Mongol', since it is by no means clear in all cases which were Turkish and which Mongol".
Eh, you managed to confuse me a bit:D
I suppose Tartars were Turkic tribe exterminated or/and conscripted by Genghis Khan's Mongols, and their name was later used by eastern Slavs and Poles for Asiatic people by, mainly those of Crimean Khanate?
 
Re: Re: Re: Re: What?!?

Originally posted by Maur13

Eh, you managed to confuse me a bit:D
I suppose Tartars were Turkic tribe exterminated or/and conscripted by Genghis Khan's Mongols, and their name was later used by eastern Slavs and Poles for Asiatic people by, mainly those of Crimean Khanate?

"Tatar" is the name given to those East Turkic tribes that came most under the influence of the Mongols. The Tatars (mostly Kipchak Turks) made up the bulk of the manpower used by the Mongols to invade Poland and Hungary and conquer Russia. When the Golden Horde was formed, the Tatar cultural influence quickly overwhelmed the Mongol.

"Tartar" is a deliberate mispronunciation of Tatar, first used by European churchmen to exaggerate the threat of the Mongolian invasion (not that it needed much exaggeration). Tartar had connotations of Tarterus, the Latin equivalent of Hell.
 
I wish they had put the Niemen on the EUII map, then I'd be able to envision the borders that you're thinking about, Maur =P. Now that I've had a chance to look at my EUII game, I can see what you're talking about with your earlier arguements though. I still think there's justification enough to make Belarus a baltic cultured province, though.
 
Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: What?!?

Originally posted by crooktooth


"Tatar" is the name given to those East Turkic tribes that came most under the influence of the Mongols. The Tatars (mostly Kipchak Turks) made up the bulk of the manpower used by the Mongols to invade Poland and Hungary and conquer Russia. When the Golden Horde was formed, the Tatar cultural influence quickly overwhelmed the Mongol.

"Tartar" is a deliberate mispronunciation of Tatar, first used by European churchmen to exaggerate the threat of the Mongolian invasion (not that it needed much exaggeration). Tartar had connotations of Tarterus, the Latin equivalent of Hell.

You totally beat me to the punch! And well put! Anyway, I'd just add that although "Tatar" is best used to designate the Turkic peoples of Russia (i.e. the Golden Horde), as the Russian government officially does today, it was also sometimes used to mean "Mongol and Turkic peoples in general", from China to Russia, especially in its "Tartar" sense.
 
Originally posted by TheLotus
about Fluid Cultures, I find it extremely dodgy <to use a British-ism> that White Russian would be the "first" state culture of Lithuania. The Lithuanian magnates/boyars/nobles who ran most of Lithuania were not Russian-ized, and the illiterate peasants of Lithuania were most certainly not. It is obvious that Lithuanian and White Russian cultures influenced each other, but I cannot see the White Russian culture as dominant <besides the use of Old Slavonic as a language of state>.

I'd have to debate you on that. Kinder and Hilgemann in the "Atlas Zur Weltgeschichte", Vol I Anchor Edition, state on p.201 that "the Russian Orthodox population predominated in the Lithuanian state; they were culturally superior to the pagan Lithuanians". That's perhaps a bit harsh, but there can be no doubt that the Lithuanian elite quickly adopted White Russian culture. As Filipe Fernandez-Armesto, professor of History at Oxford, puts it in "The Times Guide to the Peoples of Europe", "from it's beginnings the Grand Duchy of Lithuania was ethnically slavonic rather than Lithuanian in character..." (p.324).

The Lithuanian ruling class didn't even show any real interest in their own national tongue, which they likely spoke as a second language--everything they published, they did so in Belorussian or Ruthenian. After noting with irony that it was Germans, rather than Lithuanians, who showed the first interest in publishing books in the Lithuanian tongue, Fernandez-Armesto goes on to note that "in Lithuania itself the language was seen as essentially a means of communication for peasants..." (p.284).

Once the G-D was joined with Poland, the Lithuanian character of the Lithuanian elites disappeared completely: "The assimilation of the Lithuanian and Ruthenian nobilities into Polish culture provided the core of the marchland Poles." (Fernandez-Armesto, p.319). The Bloomsbury Dictionary of Languages describes P-L as "... a double Polish-Lithuanian state in which Polish became the ruling language (until very recently Polish was the majority language of the Lithuanian capital, Vilnius)." Again, a case of the sophisticated townsfolk speaking the prestige language (Polish by the 16th century) and the peasantry speaking the national tongue.

I think the problem we have in getting our heads around the Lithuanian government and ruling classes adopting Belarus culture is that this would never happen today. In the age of nation states, it is impossible to imagine one nation conquering another and then adopting the culture of the conquered. Imagine, for example the Nazis taking over Poland and then changing the state language to Polish! Ridiculuous! In the Middle Ages, however, people did not tie up culture and ethnicity/nationality so strongly and conquerers adopting the culture of the conquered was commonplace. The Mongols, for example, did it with almost every culture they subjugated (and ruled directly). In the Middle Ages, there was nothing at all unusual about Lithuanians being dominant politically and White Russians being dominant culturally. Slightly before the EU period begins, a similar situation existed in many of the Slavic countries (and to some extent in Scandinavia, particularly Denmark) with German culture.
 
Touche =). Your points are well made, but I still don't think we can look at Lithuania being White Russian "first" and Lithuanian "second", seeing as how the Lithuanian peasants for the most part never really assimilated as much into the Slavic culture as the nobility of the Middle Ages did. Perhaps in the context of state culture, I can see Slavic as being predominant.

I would draw a parallel to Peter the Great of Russia's attempts to modernize Russia during the late 17th and early 18th centuries. He affected great change on his boyars and the Russian Orthodox Church by exposing them to <or forcing them to adopt> western European cultural traits, but in the end some of his efforts were wasted, as his ideas could not be seriously forced upon the huge masses of illiterate, uneducated Russian serfs.
 
Originally posted by TheLotus
Touche =). Your points are well made, but I still don't think we can look at Lithuania being White Russian "first" and Lithuanian "second", seeing as how the Lithuanian peasants for the most part never really assimilated as much into the Slavic culture as the nobility of the Middle Ages did. Perhaps in the context of state culture, I can see Slavic as being predominant.

Thats the point!
Of course rural areas kept Lithuanian habits and language till the national movement of 19th century which let Lithuanian culture to come back to existence...