snuggs said:But that's true everywhere. CK rationalises magnate power by province, it doesn't mean a lord personally owned anything like that area.
Yes, but the difference is that those landowners in the Byzantine Empire didn't 'rule' in any real sense of the word. The way I understand it is that the comperable landowners in the west ruled over those lands as vassal to the king, which was quite different than the model of Byzantines. Also, some of what I've read on the subject indicates that there was a significantly greater amount of land owned outright by small farmers in the Byzantine Empire than in the west.