Ebu after searching once and again, because I thought and seems I thought right you had some fail, the Hispanorromans were Catholic and Visigoths Arrian, always heard and read it to be that way, and had researched again and still find the same.
Yep.Originally posted by Txini
Ebu after searching once and again, because I thought and seems I thought right you had some fail, the Hispanorromans were Catholic and Visigoths Arrian, always heard and read it to be that way, and had researched again and still find the same.
Under the succeeding rulers the kingdom was enlarged, and, during the reign of Euric (466) the Visigothic Kingdom of Toulouse, named after its capital Toulouse, included the southern part of Gaul and a large portion of Spain. The Arian kings found the Catholic Church firmly established in the country; and the Catholics enjoyed toleration until the reign of Euric. The conflicts which then arose have been described by Gregory of Tours as bloody persecutions, but this is exaggerated. Euric was in general just towards his Catholic subjects but took steps against individual bishops and clerics who encouraged religious quarrels and were political opponents of the kingdom. Catholics who fled from Africa found an asylum among the Visigoths and Euric's minister, Leo, was a Catholic.
Hispanorromans were Catholic and Visigoths Arrian,
Originally posted by Gjerg Kastrioti
That's what I had heard as well. But by 1066 the Arian christians had all converted to Islam or Catholicism, as far as I know.
The Basques were Catholic in 1066 weren't they? No pagans ready to ambush the Franks?
Originally posted by Gjerg Kastrioti
That's what I had heard as well. But by 1066 the Arian christians had all converted to Islam or Catholicism, as far as I know.
Originally posted by Marcus Valerius
Maybe they weren't actively encouraged by the Islamic Rulers, but I'd argue that the very existence of the extra taxes on the non-Muslim subjects acted as a de facto encouragement to convert from the point of view of those subjects, just to avoid extra taxation.
They are probably not unrealistic as to the might of the Visigoth armies. There was however no census at the time, and I just question the figure as indicating the number of ethnic Visigoths. The most relevant analogy is with the Franks and I doubt that Charlemagnes forces were made up of only Germanic Franks. I guess the Germanic part was more restricted to the nobles and the infantry from the Eastern parts. Concerning the Visigoths it is thus more likely to see them as nobles commanding vaster armies of Romance foot soldiers.
Originally posted by Abdul Goatherd
Yep. King Reccared of the Visigoths converted from Arian to Catholic Christanity in 589. Everybody followed suit.
Originally posted by Conrad
Ebusitanus wrote:
_______________________________________________
As I said in my earlier post, contrary to the Muslim invasion, the Visigoth take over was done by a whole population movement.
_______________________________________________
Still, I doubt the ethnic homogenity of this Visigothic population movement. It is hard for me to see them as more "Scandinavian" than the Americans are "English".
The Visigoths were not only masters at plundering, they were also masters at subjugating peoples. They started out in Poland and extended their rule down to the Black Sea ruling the ancestors of the Slavs (giving them a load of Germanic loan-words). Then they stayed a while in the Balkans, then in Italy before moving on to France and Spain. They could not have succeeded in doing this if they had not known how to "make use of" conquered nations.
So, I still doubt that this huge amount of Visigoths was very Visigothic in composition.
I am pretty sure we can compare the Goths to the Moors.
I am curious as to how and why the descendancy from the Goths would entitle anyone to a better seat at a Catholic meeting in the 15th century...Originally posted by Conrad
In the 15th century there was a Catholic meeting in which the Spaniards claimed to be entitled to the best seats as they were "the descendants of Goths" (in that day and age it was "valorizing"). The Swedes opposed this and claimed that they were the "real Goths" and that they instead were entitled to the best seats. The Spaniards sneered that it was better to be descended from the brave who left than to be descended from the cowardly stay-at-homers. The pope, however, decided that it was a draw.
Apparently, if my memory doesn't fail, there were enough Goths settling in Spain to leave a strong memory of being "Gothic" in the ruling class, even towards the end of the reconquista.
Originally posted by Havard
I am curious as to how and why the descendancy from the Goths would entitle anyone to a better seat at a Catholic meeting in the 15th century...