I know that when edward I expelled the jews from england he took control over their possessions and thus also the loans they had given which would now be owed directly to the crown
if philip did the same then it would have brought in a semi-long term source of revenue without necesarily being heavily in debt
Possibly. Not sure debts could be transferred to third parties at the time. At any rate, 1300 was a jubilee year in Christendom, so debts would have been canceled.
The stolen property (well, one third of it anyway) was restored to Jews by Philip's successor.
Not saying Philip wasn't deep in debt to a myriad of people. He was. But his money-grabbing schemes were very widespread, far beyond his creditors.
P.S. - Given it is tax time here in the US, be sure to reserve some curses for Philip IV the Fair. The greedy sonofabitch can be assigned blame as the inventor of permanent taxation.
Last edited: