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Reichcube

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Apr 11, 2015
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The transition happened because, I assume, feudal governments were in some way "superior" to their older counterparts. But why?

My theory is that feudal governments were "superior" to, say, the administration of the Roman Empire because:
1- Transitions of power were formalized. The King's demesne was his legitimate property, legitimacy enforced by the Church, and was to be inherited by his sons like any other form of property. Therefore, usurpation was theft.
2- Local sovereignty. Since the Roman Emperor was all-mighty and could revoke titles at will, that created an incentive for massive civil wars for the one title that mattered, while under the feudal system, since everyone is more or less the entrenched master of their own land, there is less incentive to try to take over your overlord. Compare the length of Byzantine dynasties to that of French dynasties.

Is the theory correct? If not, what could be an alternative one?
 
The Roman Empire ended. Everything collapsed. Countries started afresh. Things were not superior for quite a while afterwards. It's called the Dark Ages for a reason. They may not have been quite as dark as traditionally portrayed but nobody thinks the immediate aftermath was an improvement.
 
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This is actually a fairly controversial topic, as I understand it. But that said, a big issue is that there's no real definition of feudalism. It's a term that has traditionally been thrown around a lot, but modern historians are moving away from it rapidly because it doesn't really describe any particular system of government.

Charlemagne's administration (with non-hereditary counts appointed by the emperor, to serve essentially as his local representative, subject to dismissal and required to report back regularly) looked very different from the administration of his grandsons (which starts to move towards hereditary local counts again), which looks very different from that of contemporary Anglo-Saxons, which looks very different from that of the Normans in England in 1066, which looks different from that of the Normans in Sicily, which looks very different from that in Plantagenet England, etc. The practice of sworn service for land was actually reasonably uncommon.

More broadly, there was actually a lot of institutional continuity between the late Western Empire and the various barbarian kingdoms that replaced it. The Latin Church is still prominent politically and spiritually (even in those places where the new rulers were Arian, the Latin Church tended to remain strong among the population, appointing bishops and remaining a powerful political force, despite attempts from e.g. the Vandals to replace it). The Roman Senate survives at least in name until fairly late in the Middle Ages (although stripped of anything beyond fancy titles. The Merovingians even had something resembling a professional standing army. Barbarian rulers adopted nomenclature and roles that explicitly mirrored those of the Western Emperors (and Charlemagne, of course, would even adopt the title). Ex-Romans (judging by names) seem to remain prominent among the bureaucracy in the immediate post-conquest period.

That said, there obviously were changes in substance, so for the purpose of continuing discussion, I'll throw out a couple of hypotheses:
  • I'd point out that the Roman army was an enormously expensive beast to support and maintain, even when it was still largely an infantry force. The barbarian kingdoms tended to be poorer (both because they were smaller, and because the Western half of the empire was generally poorer to start with), and the increasing importance of cavalry meant that they became even more expensive to support (as a warhorse, much less the several that you'd reasonably need for a single mounted warrior, is extremely expensive). Which means that western rulers increasingly found it necessary to offload some of the costs of supporting those armies to their subordinate landholders, which in turn meant that they had independent military power (which can translate into political power).
  • I'd also echo the point about legitimization (note that many of the new kingdoms had rulers who created genealogies tracing their descent back to either pagan gods or classical or Roman heroes/emperors), with the added point that it generally wasn't the king's "demesne" in the CK sense that was inviolate, but the realm as a whole (even if subdivided among various heirs, it was generally seen as one "realm of the Franks [or whomever]" just temporarily divided). It's worth noting that when Pepin decides to depose the Merovingians completely, he asks for legitimization from the Pope to do so (whereas any good Byzantine usurper wouldn't have felt the need) in order to justify his usurpation.
 
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The prohibitive costs of maintaining a ready military force after the collapse of centralized government and its currency-based economy made it more practical to "farm out" defense to a bunch of vassals, rather than have to absorb the cost of training and maintaining a standing army. You turned over control of a parcel of land for the lifetime of the recipient in exchange for a vow of military support when called for, and that vassal in turn placed "knights" on individual estates, with the surpluses of the estates going to supply the knight, who in turn was forbidden in many places to do any other work besides train for war or actually fight. There was practically no "money" involved in keeping an army in readiness, as opposed to the money-intensive system and standing army used by Rome. It wasn't until the Middle Ages that strong centralized administrations with stable currency began to rise to prominence once again.
 
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Adding to what @Kovax cogently said, you also have a collapse of a very large duty-free trade zone with good transportation and large internal markets, broken up into small self-sufficient zones controlled by competing governments who each tax any commerce moving through. In a large commercial zone an area can specialize to some degree, trading away what it does best and importing some of its needs. The successor states were not able to trade to the same extent and centralized taxation was replaced by tax-farming and confiscation, so real wealth sharply declined.

This was particularly marked in the western half of the empire, where the emphasis had been on large estates efficiently producing bulk quantities of foodstuffs or goods.

It is also worth noting that a relatively small military force was required to defend the integral empire, while numerous military forces were needed when the fractured pieces began to war upon each other. That increases the money needed for campaigns and fortification and decreases what can be devoted to things like roads, bridges and such.

As a further point, it can be argued that one contributory cause of the Empire's collapse was the frequency and devastation of civil wars, caused in some measure by the Empire's inability to carry out a stable political succession. Feudalism does provide for stable succession and places high premiums on loyalty and legitimacy - at least of the local and immediate type.

As @Rubidium points out, one can build a large, relatively stable feudal empire - Charlemagne did - but his reconsolidation of the western empire fell apart after his death due to war between his successors.
 
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Almost everyone here is talking economics; what I want to discuss is political structures.
Of course the Roman Empire was wealthier than, say, the HRE; it was in a better position to have economies of scale (full control over the Mediterranean, etc)

What I was saying is: given two kingdoms of equal size, technology and innate resources, one ruled by a Dominus/Despot giving and taking away tax farming rights at will and another ruled by a King giving lands in heredity to his lords in exchange for levies, the latter is more stable in the long run for the reasons I mentioned above.

The practice of sworn service for land [In the Middle Ages] was actually reasonably uncommon.
Compared to direct, non-hereditary appointment? Does that imply that Imperator to an extent reflects medieval administration better than CK?
 
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I'm not saying Feudal Europe was a haven of peace, but civil wars had three or four simultaneous warring claimants at most; they weren't full-blown grab-what-you-can battle royales like the Diadochi Wars, or the civil wars around the Year of the Four Emperors, or the civil wars in the Rashidun Caliphate, or the Byzantine shenanigans that gave Anatolia to the Turks on a silver platter.
 
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I'm not saying Feudal Europe was a haven of peace, but civil wars had three or four simultaneous warring claimants at most; they weren't full-blown battle royales like the Diadochi Wars or the civil wars around the Year of the Four Emperors.

Since your 20 knigths decided the battle you would not took 15.000 hungry mouth with you for their questionable military value. There are times when massed spearmen/riflemen decide and other times when a squadron of knights/stealth fighters.
 
The transition happened because, I assume, feudal governments were in some way "superior" to their older counterparts. But why?

My theory is that feudal governments were "superior" to, say, the administration of the Roman Empire because:
1- Transitions of power were formalized. The King's demesne was his legitimate property, legitimacy enforced by the Church, and was to be inherited by his sons like any other form of property. Therefore, usurpation was theft.
2- Local sovereignty. Since the Roman Emperor was all-mighty and could revoke titles at will, that created an incentive for massive civil wars for the one title that mattered, while under the feudal system, since everyone is more or less the entrenched master of their own land, there is less incentive to try to take over your overlord. Compare the length of Byzantine dynasties to that of French dynasties.

Is the theory correct? If not, what could be an alternative one?
- There was no transition from the Roman Empire to feudalism, they are separated by several centuries.
- Succession was also formalized in the Roman Empire, the princeps also held a large demesne in property, also passed it on to his (sometimes adopted) son, also enjoyed the sanction of religious institutions. Usurpations happened but were not the rule. All usurpations are theft, unless they succeed.
- Feudal rights are not property rights. Under the feudal system lands and rights were conditional on service and thus could be declared forfeit when service wasn't rendered.
- As @Rubidium points out feudalism was not as common as once thought, thus your idea that medieval titles were more secure could be true, but only to the extent that they were not feudalized.

Almost everyone here is talking economics; what I want to discuss is political structures.
Of course the Roman Empire was wealthier than, say, the HRE; it was in a better position to have economies of scale (full control over the Mediterranean, etc)

What I was saying is: given two kingdoms of equal size, technology and innate resources, one ruled by a Dominus/Despot giving and taking away tax farming rights at will and another ruled by a King giving lands in heredity to his lords in exchange for levies, the latter is more stable in the long run for the reasons I mentioned above.

Compared to direct, non-hereditary appointment? Does that imply that Imperator to an extent reflects medieval administration better than CK?
- Everyone talks economics because the main advantage of a landed military elite is economic. A professional soldier who is paid by the state and doesn't have to manage a domain has even more time to devote to training than a feudal knight. Professional armies are also easier to deploy than feudal knights who have to be gathered first. A state that's able to pay for a professional army with the same equipment as feudal knights has the advantage; the problem is that it takes a strong monetized economy to run such a professional army and that collapsed with the Roman Empire.
- Feudalism means lands given to a person or in conditional heredity.
- Warfare was endemic in the Middle Ages, in the Roman Empire it had been infrequent except in some border areas. If stability means less destruction of lives and property, than the Roman Empire certainly wins.
- If by stability you mean fewer crises that affect the whole of the state, then you may have an argument. I'm not convinced that there really were fewer succession crises than in the Roman Empire, though.

I'm not saying Feudal Europe was a haven of peace, but civil wars had three or four simultaneous warring claimants at most; they weren't full-blown grab-what-you-can battle royales like the Diadochi Wars, or the civil wars around the Year of the Four Emperors, or the civil wars in the Rashidun Caliphate, or the Byzantine shenanigans that gave Anatolia to the Turks on a silver platter.
- The Diadochi Wars and the First Fitna are not Roman and thus cannot demonstrate the superiority of "feudalism" over the Roman system.
- All of the examples above involved less than 5 simultaneous warring claimants; the Year of the Four Emperors is even named for it.

The kind of comparison you want to make, can perhaps be done but not if you're sloppy in selecting your examples, formulating and applying your concepts (such as feudalism) or in dismissing an entire field of research (economics) out of hand.
 
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I wasn't talking about the Roman Empire only; I was talking about all forms of pre-feudal non-tribal governments around the region.
Under the feudal system lands and rights were conditional on service
And under the modern system of property rights, the right to own your house is conditional to paying real estate taxes. That doesn't mean you don't own the house.

As @Rubidium points out feudalism was not as common as once thought, thus your idea that medieval titles were more secure could be true, but only to the extent that they were not feudalized.
This is a very interesting point, but again, if it wasn't feudalism, what was it? To administer a province back then, you had three options: Tax farming (common in classical antiquity), direct administration by bureaucrats (requires a strong bureaucracy, and gives all control to a despot whose title everyone wants to usurp because it's the only one that matters), or ceding the administration to a military leader in exchange for levies (or scutage), which seems to me like the feudal contract.

Maybe using the Roman Empire at its peak as an example was a mistake. Maybe it would've been better to use smaller classical era kingdoms, like Macedon or Pontus.
 
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From my perspective, the difference is the management of stability by loyalty.

The Roman Republic-then-Empire strongly discouraged loyalty to individual men and replaced it with loyalty to the city, city-state and empire. It also provided a shared set of laws and beliefs but deliberately limited executive terms in order to prevent the building of a political base. The transition over to empire was a recognition that the republic didn't function anymore - the senate was divided by party, short executive terms didn't permit solution of long-term problems and there were a lot of political-based show trials for provincial governors. The Empire made the executive strong and (usually) long-lasting but saw loyalty to state replaced by loyalty to the Emperor or to no-one but oneself, more the latter as time went on. And, of course, the corrosion of the legal system and repeated purchase of power by bribing Praetorians or legions meant the worst tended to rise to the top... the more so as bad, crazy or just pragmatic Emperors tended to kill off their opponents, real or imagined.

Under an efficient, strong Emperor the system could work, but even with command of the Mediterranean the time needed to identify a problem and dispatch a solution made its size unwieldy. A good governor could become a petty king in all but name, or raise a flag in revolt for independence or to make himself Emperor in turn, especially so if the Emperor had risen by the same method. The system gave enormous power to imperial and provincial leaders but little or none to managers at regional and city level and it inspired little or no loyalty to the system or its operators. Think of it as a company run by six to twelve division-leaders, each of whom is competing for control of operations and trying to unseat the CEO.

Under feudalism the system becomes local and personal. At each level one is sworn to be loyal to an immediate superior - in fact it looks rather like a revolutionary cell-structure or a large corporate office-chart with lots of middle-managers. In theory each leader's responsibilities are limited, sharply defined and local, and each subordinate is known by him and loyal to him. As it expands the 'wedding cake' becomes unwieldy, but in smaller sizes it can be very stable. As humans can manage about five really close friends, the system can work at the local and regional level but tends to fall apart as local levels diverge from national needs and as superiors are not as friendly with one another. Under feudalism, replacing bad subordinates (or bad superiors) is much harder than in the imperial system... stability can have its downside.

Feudalism was, I think, a reaction to two developments - the collapse of good communications and the wide proliferation of permanent fortified bases - and is a management theory that did better at the local level than the empire. Where empire is about aggregating local resources to solve national problems, feudalism is about concentrating on local needs to the detriment of national concerns.
 
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I wasn't talking about the Roman Empire only; I was talking about all forms of pre-feudal non-tribal governments around the region.

And under the modern system of property rights, the right to own your house is conditional to paying real estate taxes. That doesn't mean you don't own the house.


This is a very interesting point, but again, if it wasn't feudalism, what was it? To administer a province back then, you had three options: Tax farming (common in classical antiquity), direct administration by bureaucrats (costly, and gives all control to a despot whose title everyone wants to usurp because it's the only one that matters), or ceding the administration to a military leader in exchange for levies (or scutage), which seems to me like the feudal contract.
Feudalism is contract-based, taxes are not. A person entered into a feudal contract by a specific act, where the warrior swore service and in return received land (as well as protection but that part isn't distinctive). If the contract stipulates that you can pass it on to your heir, then the whole contract including the service is passed on. If you (or your heirs) break the contract, you lose the land. You don't get it back by making peace or submitting but only by renewing the contract.

Taxes are not a contract. The state one-sidedly determines who pays taxes and threatens punishment if people refuse to pay up. That punishment could be loss of your property if you refused to pay for long enough or caused enough trouble for the tax collector but it didn't need to be. It was indeed quite common to require taxes in kind, including periods of military service. If the ruler specified this kind of payment and that specific punishment, then yes, it looks very much like feudalism; that's why it took time for students of medieval history to discover that their supposedly widespread model was in reality not all that widespread.
 
Adding to what @Kovax cogently said, you also have a collapse of a very large duty-free trade zone with good transportation and large internal markets, broken up into small self-sufficient zones controlled by competing governments who each tax any commerce moving through. In a large commercial zone an area can specialize to some degree, trading away what it does best and importing some of its needs. The successor states were not able to trade to the same extent and centralized taxation was replaced by tax-farming and confiscation, so real wealth sharply declined.

This was particularly marked in the western half of the empire, where the emphasis had been on large estates efficiently producing bulk quantities of foodstuffs or goods.

It is also worth noting that a relatively small military force was required to defend the integral empire, while numerous military forces were needed when the fractured pieces began to war upon each other. That increases the money needed for campaigns and fortification and decreases what can be devoted to things like roads, bridges and such.

As a further point, it can be argued that one contributory cause of the Empire's collapse was the frequency and devastation of civil wars, caused in some measure by the Empire's inability to carry out a stable political succession. Feudalism does provide for stable succession and places high premiums on loyalty and legitimacy - at least of the local and immediate type.

As @Rubidium points out, one can build a large, relatively stable feudal empire - Charlemagne did - but his reconsolidation of the western empire fell apart after his death due to war between his successors.

The Roman Empire had internal tolls and customs. Duties had to be paid when crossing any boundary between provinces, and sometimes even when entering cities (some tax lists for eastern cities like Palmyra in the Principate and Anazarbus in the Late Empire have survived in epigraphic form). the only trade exempt for such tolls was the imperial annona for the city of Rome (and later also Constantinople). Imperial authorities usually paid the merchants who transported the annona supplies in their ships to the imperial capitals with trade privileges that exempted them from internal customs, and this was the cause for the great prosperity and expansion of the North African trade network between the III and V c. CE.
 
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The transition happened because, I assume, feudal governments were in some way "superior" to their older counterparts. But why?

My theory is that feudal governments were "superior" to, say, the administration of the Roman Empire because:
1- Transitions of power were formalized. The King's demesne was his legitimate property, legitimacy enforced by the Church, and was to be inherited by his sons like any other form of property. Therefore, usurpation was theft.
2- Local sovereignty. Since the Roman Emperor was all-mighty and could revoke titles at will, that created an incentive for massive civil wars for the one title that mattered, while under the feudal system, since everyone is more or less the entrenched master of their own land, there is less incentive to try to take over your overlord. Compare the length of Byzantine dynasties to that of French dynasties.

Is the theory correct? If not, what could be an alternative one?

Just a quick answer; it's late and I can't extend myself much right now.

1. Roman emperors also had a demesne, as pointed out by other forumites. It was called initially the "res privata" and "patrimonium" from the reign of Septimius Severus onwards.
2. Neither Roman emperors nor any other human ruler has ever been allmighty. They rule with the support of an elite who enacts their rulings, and who can and will replace the ruler if he alienates them; even Hitler or Stalin had to keep an eye on their ministers and the leaders of their respective parties. Actually, the amount of land confiscations, etc. reported in primary sources during the Late Roman Empire, which was supposedly when the emperors were more "despotic", was almost non-existant compared to the purges and mass confiscations enacted by the Triumvirs, Tiberius or Caligula. If anything, a considerable amount of public (or imperial "private") real estate was alienated to other parties, mainly to the Church.
 
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Feudalism is contract-based, taxes are not.
Taxes are indeed a contract - cash, service or kind for services rendered. The fact that one side or the other may break it does not change the nature of the social contract. As you note, a ruler may take more or provide less... and citizens may subvert payment or depart.
 
Taxes are indeed a contract - cash, service or kind for services rendered. The fact that one side or the other may break it does not change the nature of the social contract. As you note, a ruler may take more or provide less... and citizens may subvert payment or depart.
A social contract is not an actual contract. It's a thought experiment that tries to model something that's involuntary as something that's voluntary. It takes power and oppression out of the equation, which is fine if you want to think about whether the system is fair. But it's something you can never do in serious historical analysis because taxes and government services were decided by force. You say citizens may subvert payment or depart, but realistically that was not an option for a peasant either in Roman or in medieval times.
 
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The transition happened because, I assume, feudal governments were in some way "superior" to their older counterparts. But why?

My theory is that feudal governments were "superior" to, say, the administration of the Roman Empire because:
1- Transitions of power were formalized. The King's demesne was his legitimate property, legitimacy enforced by the Church, and was to be inherited by his sons like any other form of property. Therefore, usurpation was theft.
2- Local sovereignty. Since the Roman Emperor was all-mighty and could revoke titles at will, that created an incentive for massive civil wars for the one title that mattered, while under the feudal system, since everyone is more or less the entrenched master of their own land, there is less incentive to try to take over your overlord. Compare the length of Byzantine dynasties to that of French dynasties.

Is the theory correct? If not, what could be an alternative one?

I have more time now, so I can extend myself a little bit about the nature of Roman administrative system. It is a typical mistake to assume that as the Romans had provinces and governors, they had a modern "centralized" territorial administrative system. in reality, they had nothing of the sorts.

During the Principate, the Roman Empire is best understood as an agglomeration of cities under the leadership of the city of Rome. Provinces and provincial governors played a relatively weak role in running the daily administration, and they had minuscule staffs that would have been unable to cope with the task. The lands under the imperium of the Roman people were divided into territoria, each one headed by a city. And it was the local authorities of these cities that led the administrative tasks in the territorium of their own city; most importantly, they carried out the gathering of taxes, of which they forwarded later a part to the provincial governor, and then the governor would further forward it to the imperial fiscus.

The status of these cities varied according to the way they had come under the Roman yoke. There were cities who were "allies of the Roman people" and which enjoyed a higher degree of autonomy; they were allowed to retain all of their legal apparatus and they continued to be governed by their pre-Roman institutions; this was quite a common status in the Greek East and in many ancient Punic cities (for example, Aphrodisias in Caria or Leptis Magna) and were expected to contribute less to the Roman aerarium. There were others who had been conquered but which were still allowed to retain their own institutions and laws, but under a sterner supervision by Roman magistrates and were subjected to a heavier tributary burden; for example Athens or Syracuse fell within this category.

As the Roman Empire needed cities to administer its territories, the Romans were forced to create them ex-novo where cities had not existed before the conquest: most of Gaul, Hispania, all the Danubian provinces, Britain and parts of North Africa. In here, these cities were usually created as settlements of retired legionaries, and they received the status of a Roman colony: to all effects, they were little replicas of Rome, their citizens enjoyed full Roman citizenship and Roman law was the only law accepted. Still, this created a dichotomy between cities that were Roman colonies of new creation like Caesaraugusta (Saragossa in Spain), Emerita Augusta (Mérida in Spain), Corduba (Córdoba), Augustodunum (Autun, in France), etc. and their territoria, which were populated by native populations who did not enjoy Roman citizenship and who did not understand Roman law. In some cases when conquered cities had been deliberatedly razed by the Romans, they were forced to rebuild them later as Roman colonies; the best known example is that of Carthage, but also Corinth in Greece.

Given that the Roman state as such was a squalid institution deliberatedly kept to its minimum expression, both in Rome and the provinces, the cities of the empire enjoyed a great leeway, as long as they adhered strictily to a few rules:
  • They must accept the supreme rule of the imperium of the Roman people, in the person of its magistrates (i.e. a Roman magistrate always could overrule a non-Roman one), and pay tribute to Rome (an agreed one in case of allied cities or Roman colonies, and imposed by Rome in the case of conquered cities).
  • They must accept and enhance the superiority of Roman law. The rule of a Roman court of law would always overrule that of a non-Roman one.
  • They must help Rome in case of war, if Rome asked them to.
This system was anything but rational or centralized. It was a haphazard one created upon ad-hoc solutions as the Romans came to rule over larger and larger territory. The system was left largely untouched during the I-II c. CE, but during the late II and early III c. CE, attempts at reform and greater "rationalization" began to be made by the ruling emperors. The reason was most probably that at this time military expenditure skyrocketed while the population of the empire decreased after the Antonine Plague and the need to regularize and reform the legal system, which had become particularly chaotic due to the multiplicity of jurisdictions that could be found across the empire. For example, in a single province like Africa you could find Roman colonies like Carthage, "allied" cities like Thapsus or Hadrumetum, and a mass of freeborn rural people who were legally defined as peregrini; that is, literally "foreigners" in their own land. The legal problem was solved in a radical way by Caracalla with the so-called Constitutio Antoniniana, which turned all freeborn people of the empire into Roman citizens (with the exception of vanquished "barbarians" resettled within the empire and the rural population of Egypt), but the problem of the territorial administration persisted.

In true Roman fashion, rather than to attempt a radical reform (Caracalla's edict is an extraordinarily rare and un-Roman case) emperors began sending special imperial envoys (with the vague title of procuratores) into the provinces, with the explicit task of intervening the finances of the cities' local councils. This practice had precedents attested already under Trajan, as some city councils mismanaged badly their finances and ended up being intervened by the Roman provincial governor (as stated in the correspondence between Trajan and Pliny the Younger when the latter was governor of Bithynia). This usually happened when cities within a same province tried to "outbuild" each other with expensive theaters, forums, temples, etc. often incurring in ruinous debt. In the increasingly dire circumstances of the early III c. CE, the emperors judged these practices unacceptable, and their procuratores took care that they ended and that the tribute to the imperial fiscus was not affected by them.

Diocletian tried at last to reform the system, but despite his attempts, tax collection continued in the hands of city councils. Direct imperial collection is only attested (as during the Principate) in internal and external tolls and customs, and in estates owned and administered directly by the emperor as part of his personal property, or as public property.

(TBC)
 
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(Continuation of my previous post)

What "killed" the ancient Roman administrative system in the West was not the rise of feudalism, but the decline of cities and the drop in long distance maritime and fluvial trade. Both phenomena must have affected dramatically imperial revenues, and the only way to avoid a fiscal collapse would have been to ensure that the Roman state was able to collect directly the two main taxes that gravated the peasants:
  • The poll tax (capitatio).
  • And the land tax (iugatio).
These two taxes had formed by far the main share of Roman direct fiscality since Republican times. But just as in any premodern society (and in practice, in all post-agricultural societies, including our contemporary western one) the elites were largely exempt from direct taxation. During the Principate, anybody who belonged to the senatorial class was exempt from these taxes, and some social groups (like soldiers who had been awarded the "honorable dismissal") also enjoyed fiscal exemptions.

Due to the collapse of the Roman monetary system during the III c. CE, Diocletian's reforms established that these taxes would be paid henceforth in kind, and not in coin, but this put an enormous logistic problem on the shoulders of the imperial fiscus. This must have necessarily needed an expansion not only of imperial bureaucracy, but also of the necessary personnel to collect, transport, store and guard such large amounts of goods. In parallel to this, the privileged classes (which enjoyed tax exemptions) increased steadily during the IV-V c. CE: homini spectabili, clarissimi, illustres, increased in number as these social stus were hereditary and the emperors awarded them liberally to functionaries and military men (usually, the access to certain imperial officies meant the automatic acquisition of such social status). Another expanding collective that enjoyed ever-higher fiscal privileges was the Church: by the late IV c. CE, all churchmen were exempt from direct taxation, and the same happened with the increasingly large estates owned by the Church.

In the West, most of this privileged elite was not based in cities; this only happened in Rome itself, in whichever city the imperial court was based at any given moment (in succession, Trier, Milan and Ravenna) and in the case of bishops, which were tied to the seat of their bishopric. But archaeology has confirmed that in the IV c. CE aristocratic villae flourished like never before in rural landscapes across the West, at the same time that cities contracted. This "flight" of elites from cities was mainly due to fiscal reasons: Roman law made compulsory for city councils to meet the tax demands imposed by the emperors and enforced by their territorial administration, and if the city council was unable to gather the amounts decreed by the emperor, its members were liable to cover the missing amount from their patrimony. Imperial legislation during the IV and V c. CE in the West insists once and again that the class of decuriones (from which members of city councils were recruited) were tied to their rank and could not leave their city; the need to constantly repeat this measure (still Valentinian III in the mid-V c. CE was futilely trying to impose it) implies that the imperial administration was unable to apply it.

In this context, the great beneficiaries of this situation would have been the Church, as bishops, who were exempt from tax obligations, increased their power steadily in their respective cities, and as members of the decurion class decided to enter the Church in increasing numbers and even forfeit their properties to it in order to sustract it from the reach of the imperial fiscus (married churchmen were not an uncommon sight at the time), and the higher members of the elite who were part of the imperial administration and/or had extensive rural estates that were protected from taxation by the personal rank of the owner (this also applied obviously to ecclesiastical lands).

The end of direct Roman rule and the appearance of the new Germanic kingdoms did not suppose a break in these trends; this only happened in Britain and in parts of the Danubian provinces, where Roman cities and social structures were wiped out almost entirely. But in Gaul, Italy, Hispania and North Africa the late Roman social and administrative system was kept in place, and it evolved in different ways across the West. The place where changes happened at a quicker place was Gaul; during the VI c. CE, in the lifetime of Gregory of Tours, the Frankish kings stopped making regular censuses, without which it was impossible to carry on the collection of direct taxes, and the cities kept shrinking in importance.

But in Visigothic Spain, despite the "ruralizing" trends in society and the economy at large, cities remained more important, and the Visigothic kings kept in place an administrative system directly modeled upon the late Roman one, that lasted until the Umayyad invasions in the 710s CE. The Regnum Gothorum was divided into provinces (the exact same late Roman provinces that existed in the late Roman empire) each ruled by a dux, and each province was subdivided into territoria with a city at the head of each one, just as in Roman times. Only difference was that now every city/territorium had a bishop and a secular comes ("count") appointed by the king at its head. This means that, at least on paper, the administrative system was more "centralized" in Visigothic Spain that during the Roman empire. We know that there was a privileged class too in Visigothic Spain, and that it enjoyed the same legal privileges the old Roman elite had enjoyed. This class included the remnants of the old Roman aristocracy, a new "warrior" aristocracy of "barbarian" origin, and the bishops and abbots (an innovation with respect to Roman times). But from a purely administrative point of view, and with the limited evidence at hand, it is difficult to find many social and administrative differences between Roman Spain in, say, 410 CE and Visigothic Spain in the eve of the Muslim conquest. Only the disappearance of the Roman villae as the predominant mode of agrarian settlement, substitued now by "medieval" villages, which leaves open the question of how and where did the Visigothic elites live; in a specific case (the Bierzo region in northwestern Spain) the hagiographical Life of Saint Martin of Dumio tells us that the local aristocrat resided in an oppidum, which scholars take to mean he resided in some sort of fortified settlement, but nothing else, as archaeology (until now) has been unable to solve this puzzle.
 
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realistically that was not an option for a peasant either in Roman or in medieval times.
If you think peasants always paid everything they wed exactly on time with no protest, no hiding goods and fleeing to the hills and no revolts... then I suggest you are mistaken and have not properly considered what you have said.

When you say there was no transition from the Roman Empire to feudalism... what exactly do you think happened in between? I get the feeling you are not expressing yourself as you would wish.

If a social contract is not a contract, then is it merely a social? It is a contract - and, sometimes, if not always, a legally enforceable one. Peasants had rights by law and custom, as did nobles and merchants and lords - in the Empire as well as under feudalism.


Your longer explanations of the Roman system are excellent.