Originally posted by Cornelius
Does in Ck exist states, like France, England, etc. or will it be only the counties and other smaller teritorial units?
My question is if a certain family wants to unite teritories and form a kingdom, and the leader of the family from count (example) will become King. Will it be possible in CK?
That would not likely happen, under the situation like the one you gave, the two lands would still technically be separate. You see in the Feudal Age (I don't like the term 'Middle Ages' or 'Medieval' as they really don't work) land and property was not owned in the "sense" that we in the modern world understand it. If two or more counties were controlled by one family who's head retained the titles himself or herself they would be united ONLY in that the titles where held by one individual. i.e. if county "A" and duchy "B" where held in fief by one person that person would be known as "So and So, duke of 'B', count of 'A'"....
It was not that a count, who might hold more then one title could NOT combine hes lands into a sovereign state, he likely wouldn't have because he would see no purpose in it.
As for gaining a crown, the idea of kingship in the feudal age does not make the king the absolute monarch (sole ruler). As a title all it meant was that he had traditional authority over a given region, which really only amounted to war leader of a collection of fighting men (land holders, and minor nobles). A king no more owned his kingdom than a modern president owns his government. The "Land" itself had rights in the form of the traditional feudal customs of the people who inhabited it. Laws changed from city to city as well as from county to county, and woe betide the feudal lord who tried to change them without the full support of both the people and his feudal vassals, not to mention the lawyers and townsmen having a fit at the idea of playing around and combining laws and charters and the whole deal, into one seamless realm.
To be sure there was, of course, always a tendency towards incorporation among the the various feudal states and princes, however it was generally resisted by the people and minor nobles. It was Only the rediscovery of Roman Imperial law and the concept of ownership (i.e. the right to 'use and abuse') that permitted the justification for the combining of land and property into vast territories headed by absolutist monarchs (and incidently allowed the renaissance of slavery and commercialism).
So in short the answer to you question would be "why?" Certainly that is what a titled noble of the period (11th-14th century) would say.