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There would be no polonization in buffer ststes, because they wouldn't have been ruled by the Poles
The concept of Intermarium/Międzymorze wouldn't have allowed the buffer states to be much more than puppet states of a very large and ascendant Poland. Even without Poles ruling them and Polonising, you can't claim it is anything else than a Polish domination. The terminology itself shows that, "buffer states", as in minor states stuck in between Poland and the Soviet Union. Saying that the Poles would have been in minority doesn't change the fact that the entire idea is based upon Polish geopolitical interests. It is a way of securing Polish national security with weak puppet neighbours, including through military control and intervention.
 
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The concept of Intermarium/Międzymorze wouldn't have allowed the buffer states to be much more than puppet states of a very large and ascendant Poland. Even without Poles ruling them and Polonising, you can't claim it is anything else than a Polish domination. The terminology itself shows that, "buffer states", as stuck in between Poland and the Soviet Union. Saying that the Poles would have been in minority doesn't change the fact that the entire concept is idea is based upon Polish geopolitical interests.
Every country has it's geopolitical interests. It doesn't mean inability for the partnership. And as I said, Poland was too weak to dominate the whole previous Commonwealth area. Especially bearing in mind that it was very poor area. What was incorporated to the 2nd Republic was already a serious burden for the economy. Today Ukraine may be (and actually is) considered a buffer state for Poland, what rather doesn't mean Polish hegemony there, does it? But Poland tries to support Ukraine, especially against hostile Russia.
 
No revolution is legitimate at first, otherwise the revolution wouldn't imply any political change. Nonetheless the October Revolution wasn't just a "coup", it involved support from the masses, even if only a reduced number actually took part in the events. So that point about a "coup" is really not relevant here, since it was a real social revolution. The pre-October government of Kerensky had no legitimacy and very little credibility when the revolution happened.

Indeed, it had been democratically elected and was disbanded due to conflicting legitimacies with the nascent revolutionnary institutions.

In the middle of a civil war you are comparing two factions, that wasn't what I said when I was talking about pre-1917 Tsarist Russia. The Soviets (worker councils) and the organisation at the grassroots in the initial phase of the Revolution between 1917-1918 was certainly far more democratic than the government Tsarist Russia. Giving the direction of factories to workers was an important social democratic advance. However the parties hostile to the October Revolution were indeed persecuted and themselves refused to take part in the institutions.

Kerensky government, despite issues, was admitted as temporary - and it conceded that all authority about the Russian future political regime should be decided by the democratically elected All-Russian parliament (Sobranie), from which no one was barred at the time including Bolsheviks.

When the coup happened, it in itself wasn't the true watershed because, as you said, Kerensky had a little authority and the democratic idea of forming future state wasn't dismissed yet. However, the dismissal of All-Russian Sobranie and democratic will of majority of the population of the Empire meant breakapart and civil war caused by the usurpation of power by the minority.

Which is especially important - Bolsheviks didn't just go against reactionary powers like Whites. They went after all political opponents, dismissed democratic will and became enemies to democratic order. And as stated above, they trumped any kind of political will in seceding nations and provinces by invasions there under guise of "soviet republic of something". Pretty much directly spitting on the rights of nation for self-determination they advocated themselves.

And the fact that they did revolution shouldn't dismiss the fact of what exactly they did, nor it excuses them. From Polish viewpoint in particular they wanted to impose just another kind of tyranny which is still closer to Old Tsarist regime than to democracy in terms of political rights. Same as happened in Ukraine, Belarus, North Caucasus, Kuban, Caucasian republics and etc. And, retrospectively, their judgement was absolutely right. The tyranny was still there. Independent states were occupied, their right for self-determination trumped by Moscow.

Well, Curzon Line in its more eastern variant (with Lwów in Poland) was not so bad idea indeed. I have no idea what would be a fair solution for Vilnius area though. It was too complicated...

You surely meant westards? ;)

The ethnic composition of pre-WWII borders is often overlooked. There were millions of native Ukrainians on both sides even of Curzon line and Lviv is especially messy - a city with pretty much Jewish majority and yet a center of Poles in the Eastern Galicia. With millions of Poles from Lviv to Zhytomyr...

Poland integrated many ethnic minorities (Ukrainian, Belorussian etc) and pursued policies of Polonisation after annexing the territories it conquered in the Soviet-Polish War. This is posterior to 1920, but the ethnic borders wasn't what was ultimately chosen, otherwise the Curzon Line was a better border.

It... didn't. It only happened after an unholy amount of deportations, ethnic cleansings, population transfers, resettlements and harsh assimilation of minorities in resettled areas.

In fact, Ukrainians in Poland had a quite bad time as Ukrainians, as well as other minorities - they were deprived of many national rights. Sadly it is an often overlooked issue.

The concept of Intermarium/Międzymorze wouldn't have allowed the buffer states to be much more than puppet states of a very large and ascendant Poland. Even without Poles ruling them and Polonising, you can't claim it is anything else than a Polish domination. The terminology itself shows that, "buffer states", as stuck in between Poland and the Soviet Union. Saying that the Poles would have been in minority doesn't change the fact that the entire concept is idea is based upon Polish geopolitical interests.

The difference between these things is immense.

You should realize that in 1917 for example Ukraine was only asking for autonomy in the future Russia. Becoming a partner to Poland, even as a "younger partner", was very much preferable scenario to reannexation by Russia, against which were only Galician Ukrainians (which were ceded to Poland by Ukraine in exchange for alliance and in case of victory that didn't come).

Pilsudski (and others) had a rather good idea from the retrospection on the former Commonwealth on why it failed and how the more just and even federal or alliance structure could prevent that. It still would benefit Poles while allowing Ukraine and Belarus to get their rights and nationhood, making a basis for a geopolitical leadership of Poland in Europe. This strategic idea was failed with the limited victory of Poland in the war however, as well as the contest for the Galicia which was a major issue. Volhyn wasn't as much of a hot spot until later, mainly being aggravated by the poor decisions of the interwar Poland's administration.
 
Every country has it's geopolitical interests. It doesn't mean inability for the partnership. And as I said, Poland was too weak to dominate the whole previous Commonwealth area. Especially bearing in mind that it was very poor area. What was incorporated to the 2nd Republic was already a serious burden for the economy. Today Ukraine may be (and actually is) considered a buffer state for Poland, what rather doesn't mean Polish hegemony there, does it? But Poland tries to support Ukraine, especially against hostile Russia.
It is not partnership when the entire idea is a federation to defend Poland. None of the member states would have been allowed to get close to the Soviet Union for example. The anti-communist nature of the project means Poland imposes ideologically aligned governments. In economic terms it means ties to the Polish economy, when for say Ukraine and Belarus it was economically beneficial to have ties to Russia for historical reasons. The aim is not self-determination at all, it is to weaken the Soviet Union to secure Poland. It would inevitably lead to military conflict or strong tensions with the Soviets, which wasn't really in the interest of Ukraine and Belarus.
It... didn't. It only happened after an unholy amount of deportations, ethnic cleansings, population transfers, resettlements and harsh assimilation of minorities in resettled areas.
What? Poland did pursue policies of polonisation towards ethnic minorities during the interwar period, as I said. I don't understand your reply here, it doesn't respond to what I posted. When I said "integrated" I meant annex and dominate, not an integration as equals.
 
What? Poland did pursue policies of polonisation towards ethnic minorities during the interwar period, as I said. I don't understand your reply here, it doesn't respond to what I posted. When I said "integrated" I meant annex and dominate, not an integration as equals.

Ah, my bad. I thought as citizens of Poland like other Poles. Although even with that there were a lot of issues.

It is not partnership when the entire idea is a federation to defend Poland. None of the member states would have been allowed to get close to the Soviet Union for example. The anti-communist nature of the project means Poland imposes ideologically aligned governments. In economic terms it means ties to the Polish economy, when for say Ukraine and Belarus it was economically beneficial to have ties to Russia for historical reasons. The aim is not self-determination at all, it is to weaken the Soviet Union to secure Poland. It would inevitably lead to military conflict or strong tensions with the Soviets, which wasn't really in the interest of Ukraine and Belarus.

That was, however, something Ukrainian People's Republic agreed to as it allowed to excercize self-determination.

And as for ties - that would be rather a desirable thing for Ukraine. You can take a look at the former Austro-Hungarian lands, where most economic ties were broken and not reestablished on purpose, in order to secure a political and economical independence as well as make the borders much harder to reverse and border communities tied close to new centers and not to Budapest. If Ukraine and Belarus became independent at that time, they would do the same - breaking extensive ties with Russia and instead making new ones, especially with Poland, in order to cement the political rule.

In fact, it is what statebuilding often does even without examples of that time. Russia spent centuries and decades to tightly integrate economics of Ukraine and Belarus; at one time they forced everyone, including Ukraine, to use port of Saint Petersburg for exports even, before the coast of Black Sea was annexed. Yugoslavia post-breakup built majority of ties outside of former inter-yugoslav connections in a explicit bid to separate themselves from former center and cement the independence from it. Pakistan and India broke all ties in order to build their own states. Central American States also did this during disbandment (although it was much easier due to structure of their economies and pecularities). Almost all breakups and secessions follow this logic. Alternatively, Mexico had California and Texas seceded from them exactly because they were much tightlier bound to the United States (as one of reasons). Integration of the German states happened under economic framework. Belgium used to be tightly integrated by the link of quite industrialized Wallonia and exporting ports in Flanders - and by avoiding too tight links to Netherlands. And so on.

The economic ties between nations are built on political trust and belief in security. Independent Ukraine back then (and now too in all honesty) would have little reason to reestablish those ties with Russia - and in it's interests as state would be avoiding them until Russia practically becomes a state that doesn't threaten it. A good example of such break between nations and later eventual reapproachment is France and Germany.

As for anti-soviet laws - it would be quite natural regardless of Polish stance. In fact, Ukraine had plenty of own left parties that were against Bolsheviks, they were both mainstream and influential to the point of being bigger than other political camps even without Bolsheviks. And I don't think that missing Soviet brand of communism with a delicious Stalin flavor would be such an issue.
 
You surely meant westards? ;)

The ethnic composition of pre-WWII borders is often overlooked. There were millions of native Ukrainians on both sides even of Curzon line and Lviv is especially messy - a city with pretty much Jewish majority and yet a center of Poles in the Eastern Galicia. With millions of Poles from Lviv to Zhytomyr...
Lwów actually was not so much messy. It had strong Polish majority - ca. 52% in accordance to 1931 census, with 32% Jews (rather integrated with Polish culture with 1/3 of them speaking Polish as the first language) and only 11% Ukrainians/Ruthenians.
1931_Census_of_Poland%2C_Miasto_Lwow_%2C_table_10_Ludnosc-Population-pg.11.jpg


Ukrainians lived mostly in the rural areas, Jews had usually majority in small towns.
However Poles still had solid majority in Lwów voivodship: 53%, with 36% Ukrainians/Ruthenians and 9% Jews.
1931_Census_of_Poland%2C_Lwow_Voivod%2C_table_10_Ludnosc-Population-pg.32.jpg


Further east it was of course more Ukrainian dominated land except Tarnopol area.
 
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Lwów actually was not so much messy. It had strong Polish majority - ca. 52% in accordance to 1931 census, with 32% Jews (rather integrated with Polish culture with 1/3 of them speaking Polish as the first language) and only 11% Ukrainians/Ruthenians.
1931_Census_of_Poland%2C_Miasto_Lwow_%2C_table_10_Ludnosc-Population-pg.11.jpg


Ukrainians lived mostly in the rural areas, Jews had usually majority in small towns.
However Poles still had solid majority in Lwów voivodship: 53%, with 36% Ukrainians/Ruthenians and 9% Jews.
1931_Census_of_Poland%2C_Lwow_Voivod%2C_table_10_Ludnosc-Population-pg.32.jpg


Further east it was of course more Ukrainian dominated land except Tarnopol area.
Aren't greek catholic poles are a bit tweeking the numbers?
On the other hand the religion numbers in the 1931 census are not that much different from the Austro-Hungaria ones (51% roman cath 28% jewish 19% greek catholic)
 
Aren't greek catholic poles are a bit tweeking the numbers?
On the other hand the religion numbers in the 1931 census are not that much different from the Austro-Hungaria ones (51% roman cath 28% jewish 19% greek catholic)
I count Greek Catholic guys speaking Polish as Poles. Why not?
I used generally language pattern as the most representative. Except Polish speaking Jews, not to be accused to overstate Poles. But TBH, I'd rather count them as Poles as well :)
 
Kerensky government, despite issues, was admitted as temporary - and it conceded that all authority about the Russian future political regime should be decided by the democratically elected All-Russian parliament (Sobranie), from which no one was barred at the time including Bolsheviks.
The Bolsheviks pushed for the convocation of the All-Russian Constituent Assembly under Kerensky (and then disbanded it once they were in charge) and Kerensky's government had accepted the idea but kept delaying it. However, that does not at all excuse the policies of the temporary Kerensky government, which were rejected massively by the population and allowed for the revolution to happen. Without Kerensky alienating the citizens and acerbating difficulties, the October Revolution was impossible, the Bolsheviks would neither have had the numbers nor the support required.

When the coup happened, it in itself wasn't the true watershed because, as you said, Kerensky had a little authority and the democratic idea of forming future state wasn't dismissed yet. However, the dismissal of All-Russian Sobranie and democratic will of majority of the population of the Empire meant breakapart and civil war caused by the usurpation of power by the minority.
The October Revolution wasn't just a "coup", no, I disagree with that qualification. It was a revolution with all the social and political implication that has. Otherwise it would mean it was just a power grab of a small group within the old system. While it is true that only a minority actively took part in the events of November 1917, given the widespread support and workers activity in the soviets you can not reduce it to that minority. The later dismissing of the All-Russian Constituent Assembly doesn't retroactively turn the October Revolution into a "coup". Or did you mean to describe the dismissing of the All-Russian Constituent Assembly as the coup? I think those events have to be put in the context of the great indifference in which it happened, elected democratically this assembly wasn't capable of asserting itself against the Bolshevik government. There were clearly two conflicting sources of power, one revolutionnary with the direct democracy of soviets and one through the democratic election with representative democracy. You highlight the problem between cities like Saint Petersburg and Moscow on one hand and the farmers on the other hand who voted for the Socialist-Revolutionaries.

Which is especially important - Bolsheviks didn't just go against reactionary powers like Whites. They went after all political opponents, dismissed democratic will and became enemies to democratic order. And as stated above, they trumped any kind of political will in seceding nations and provinces by invasions there under guise of "soviet republic of something". Pretty much directly spitting on the rights of nation for self-determination they advocated themselves.
That is a bit too quick and one-sided. We are talking about a civil war, initially the parties opposed to the revolution could take part in soviets but afterwards that changed and they boycotted these institutions anyway. In my opinion you go too quickly from November 1917 to war communism. From reading your post one gets the feeling of solely a "coup" by Lenin and some inner circle, and then immediately proceeding to centralise all power and go against all ennemies. That is too simplistic, things were not set in stone. However, I agree with you that the phase of war communism did not respect self-determination, the aim was clearly to defeat the ennemies and implement Bolshevik policies.

And the fact that they did revolution shouldn't dismiss the fact of what exactly they did, nor it excuses them. From Polish viewpoint in particular they wanted to impose just another kind of tyranny which is still closer to Old Tsarist regime than to democracy in terms of political rights. Same as happened in Ukraine, Belarus, North Caucasus, Kuban, Caucasian republics and etc. And, retrospectively, their judgement was absolutely right. The tyranny was still there. Independent states were occupied, their right for self-determination trumped by Moscow.
I don't think anyone excused anything. Polish communists did support the Red Army, while on the other hand Polish nationalists were opposed as you said and viewed it as tyranny. We can not do retrospective judgment, but I agree that Poland would have become a puppet state. A question I don't have an answer to however is if Poland would have become a part of the USSR federation by 1922 with a status similar to Ukraine or if it would have been kept as a separate puppet state with an intermediate status.

Ah, my bad. I thought as citizens of Poland like other Poles. Although even with that there were a lot of issues.
No problems, it is my fault since the post wasn't clear. I edited it slightly to hopefully address the ambiguity.

That was, however, something Ukrainian People's Republic agreed to as it allowed to excercize self-determination.
That is clearly a fool's game. The Polish nationalists promise something they can't deliver in exchange of getting to annex and polonise Galicia.

As for anti-soviet laws - it would be quite natural regardless of Polish stance. In fact, Ukraine had plenty of own left parties that were against Bolsheviks, they were both mainstream and influential to the point of being bigger than other political camps even without Bolsheviks.
It would of course be natural in a federation with Poland, but that doesn't make it any more acceptable or democratic. There were Ukrainian Bolsheviks, they weren't an irrelevant subgroup, it was a significant political force to my knowledge.

And I don't think that missing Soviet brand of communism with a delicious Stalin flavor would be such an issue.
That is completely anachronistic. You can't blame Stalin's later policies on Lenin or any other Bolshevik, including Stalin himself, in 1920.
 
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Well, if Polish supported Petlyura's Ukrainian People's Republic was established in same interwar borders as Ukrainian SSR was, then it would have almost equal population to Poland in its interwar borders, so realistically Polish ability to dominate such relationship would be always limited by two countries being in the same weight class. This is quite different from Ukraine-Russia relationship where Russia is significantly larger and more powerful party.
 
Lwów actually was not so much messy. It had strong Polish majority - ca. 52% in accordance to 1931 census, with 32% Jews (rather integrated with Polish culture with 1/3 of them speaking Polish as the first language) and only 11% Ukrainians/Ruthenians.

I actually remembered it being about 50% Jews and ~30% Poles. I don't remember why though, maybe I confused it with another city... not that I contest that Ukrainians were indeed 10% of population or so, under 15% at best during those times.

Ukrainians lived mostly in the rural areas, Jews had usually majority in small towns.
However Poles still had solid majority in Lwów voivodship: 53%, with 36% Ukrainians/Ruthenians and 9% Jews.

Yes, but Lwow voievodship =/= all area.

Western Ukrainian Republic and Curzon line are drawn in the eastern half of it, cutting off the most Polish parts.

Lwowskie.png


And pretty much all troublesome parts were around eastern half, as well as Western Ukrainian Republic pretenses and later Ukrainian, as well as other things. In this region population is dramatically more Ukrainian.

I count Greek Catholic guys speaking Polish as Poles. Why not?
I used generally language pattern as the most representative. Except Polish speaking Jews, not to be accused to overstate Poles. But TBH, I'd rather count them as Poles as well :)

In such censuses there is always a factor of ambivalency when such citizens may attribute their loyalty to both identities/states. They are often the "swinging" ones, especially ones speaking state language. Which still shows the capacity to integrate them.

Actually, I kinda mean to write a post about Western Ukrainian history, especially if HoI4 diary disappoints me (95% chance tbh), focusing on the interwar period and prelude to the WWII. If you would be interesting, we could discuss it there, since it is a painfully big thing to cover with painfully many things to overlook - especially when some historians take conflicting stances for obvious reasons.
 
Well, if Polish supported Petlyura's Ukrainian People's Republic was established in same interwar borders as Ukrainian SSR was, then it would have almost equal population to Poland in its interwar borders, so realistically Polish ability to dominate such relationship would be always limited by two countries being in the same weight class. This is quite different from Ukraine-Russia relationship where Russia is significantly larger and more powerful party.
In the civil war context of war communism there wasn't much space for Ukraine, so I don't think there would have been any Poland either had the Red Army won. Russia would have dominated both. Does that mean the Polish's vision of a federation was viable as an alternative? I don't think so, Poland clearly had the priority of annexing territories as evidenced by Galicia and going beyond the Curzon Line in general and hadn't conceived any proposal that allowed for a such equal relationship. However, I don't know what borders were envisioned for this "buffer rump Ukraine" within a Polish federation, although at that point Poland has to defeat the Soviet Union so decisively that the Whites would presumably win the civil war with Entente support. With this in mind, I don't see what interest the Entente would have in allowing Poland to pursue Intermarium/Międzymorze, it would create even more instability in the region. The borders the Entente wanted for Poland was the Curzon Line, anything beyond that is likely to be difficult to get if there isn't any Bolshevik enemy.
 
I don't think anyone excused anything. Polish communists did support the Red Army, while on the other hand Polish nationalists were opposed as you said and viewed it as tyranny. We can not do retrospective judgment, but I agree that Poland would have become a puppet state. A question I don't have an answer to however is if Poland would have become a part of the USSR federation by 1922 with a status similar to Ukraine or if it would have been kept as a separate puppet state with an intermediate status.
What Polish communists? Were there any premise of revolution or at least strikes anticipating approaching Red Army?
It was a group of Comintern activists of Polish origins who gathered in Białystok and proclaimed the Polish SSR.
Not only nationalists, but the entire Polish society consolidated in the resistance against Bolshevik hordes.
That is clearly a fool's game. The Polish nationalists promise something they can't deliver in exchange of getting to annex and polonise Galicia.
Galicia didn't need to be polonized. It was overwhelming Polish already :)

That is completely anachronistic. You can't blame Stalin's later policies on Lenin or any other Bolshevik, including Stalin himself, in 1920.
Have you ever heard about Bloody Feliks? :)
 
What Polish communists? Were there any premise of revolution or at least strikes anticipating approaching Red Army?
It was a group of Comintern activists of Polish origins who gathered in Białystok and proclaimed the Polish SSR.
What? Białystok is a Polish city, right? Are you saying that Comintern activists "of Polish origins" shouldn't be considered as Poles? And of course that I label Comintern activists as "communist", that should go without saying.

Not only nationalists, but the entire Polish society consolidated in the resistance against Bolshevik hordes.
That is a too idealised vision. A more accurate description is that the majority of the Polish society consolidated in support of the Polish nationalist leaders to face the invading Red Army. "Bolshevik hordes" is a Russophobic conservative counter-revolutionnary trope. The Red Army had nothing to do with a horde.

Galicia didn't need to be polonized. It was overwhelming Polish already :)
I'm referring to Galician Ukrainians who were targeted by polonisation policies.

Have you ever heard about Bloody Feliks? :)
Irrelevant when he was mentioning Stalin's terror in 1920.
 
I actually remembered it being about 50% Jews and ~30% Poles. I don't remember why though, maybe I confused it with another city... not that I contest that Ukrainians were indeed 10% of population or so, under 15% at best during those times.



Yes, but Lwow voievodship =/= all area.

Western Ukrainian Republic and Curzon line are drawn in the eastern half of it, cutting off the most Polish parts.

Lwowskie.png


And pretty much all troublesome parts were around eastern half, as well as Western Ukrainian Republic pretenses and later Ukrainian, as well as other things. In this region population is dramatically more Ukrainian.



In such censuses there is always a factor of ambivalency when such citizens may attribute their loyalty to both identities/states. They are often the "swinging" ones, especially ones speaking state language. Which still shows the capacity to integrate them.

Actually, I kinda mean to write a post about Western Ukrainian history, especially if HoI4 diary disappoints me (95% chance tbh), focusing on the interwar period and prelude to the WWII. If you would be interesting, we could discuss it there, since it is a painfully big thing to cover with painfully many things to overlook - especially when some historians take conflicting stances for obvious reasons.
Such maps are always tricky. As I said, rural areas were mostly Ukrainian, while cities Polish. So you have bigger loosely populated spots painted in green while more concentrated population is not shown so explicitly :)
Anyway, Lwów as a major Polish center was non-negotiable that time.
 
What? Białystok is a Polish city, right? Are you saying that Comintern activists "of Polish origins" shouldn't be considered as Poles? And of course that I label Comintern activists as "communist", that should go without saying.
You see. You know nothing, loup :)
That is a too idealised vision. A more accurate description is that the majority of the Polish society consolidated in support of the Polish nationalist leaders to face the invading Red Army. "Bolshevik hordes" is a Russophobic conservative counter-revolutionnary trope. The Red Army had nothing to do with a horde.
Oh yes, it had. Their antics on the seized land especially.
And Piłsudski was actually a socialist :)
I'm referring to Galician Ukrainians who were targeted by polonisation policies.
In Galicia? What policies?
Irrelevant when he was mentioning Stalin's terror in 1920.
Relevant, when he mentioned Lenin's terror in 1920.
 
Oh yes, it had. Their antics on the seized land especially.
Do we really need to go over the definition of a horde? Claiming the Red Army in 1920 was a "horde" is nonsense, you know better than that.

In Galicia? What policies?
Are you denying the fact that ethnic minorities existed in Galicia?

Relevant, when he mentioned Lenin's terror in 1920.
"communism with a delicious Stalin flavour" is now "Lenin's terror in 1920"?
 
Are you denying the fact that ethnic minorities existed in Galicia?
No. But tell me about those policies.
In Galicia.
"communism with a delicious Stalin flavour" is now "Lenin's terror in 1920"?
Yes. Stalin was only more efficient.
 
The October Revolution wasn't just a coup, no, I disagree with that qualification. It was a revolution with all the social and political implication that has. Otherwise it would mean it was just a power grab of a small group within the old system. While it is true that only a minority actively took part in the events of November 1917, given the widespread support and workers activity in the soviets you can not reduce it to that minority. The later dismissing of the All-Russian Constituent Assembly doesn't retroactively turn the October Revolution into a "coup".

The Revolution started since February - and it was truly The Revolution for most intents or purposes since then.

What happened in February is that part of the revolutionaries, Bolsheviks, seized power and later themselves directed the revolution. It is as much of coup d'etat as events of 9th Thermidor with fall of Robespierre, regardless of support for it. Nor it makes another revolution - just that Soviets named this event as The Revolution to make themselves heroes.

Dismantlement of the assembly showed only that they denied democratic vote and the Republican rule that was suggested by February Revolution, not just the government of Kerensky. Which is also a reason why, despite it being coup in nature, it is a Revolution of it's own - it transitioned further into the other social and political order.

There were clearly two conflicting sources of power, one revolutionnary with the direct democracy of soviets and one through the democratic election with representative democracy. You highlight the problem between cities like Saint Petersburg and Moscow on one hand and the farmers on the other hand who voted for the Socialist-Revolutionaries.

The issue here is that includes not just "farmers" but absolute majority of the former empire, especially neglecting national republics (Ukraine seceded after that, despite it's mainstream being actually largely in favor of staying as autonomy, as far as 90% of politicians or so). In other words, majority of the former Empire didn't accept it as it denied any political participation for them.

That is a bit too quick and one-sided. We are talking about a civil war, initially the parties opposed to the revolution could take part in soviets but afterwards that changed and they boycotted these institutions anyway. In my opinion you go too quickly from November 1917 to war communism. From reading your post one gets the feeling of solely a "coup" by Lenin and some inner circle, and then immediately proceeding to centralise all power and go against all ennemies. That is too simplistic, things were not set in stone.

Sure it is a simplification, I agree here. Reality was much messier.

The intentions, however, were still those. Centralization was also seen as important - in fact, there was a lot of rush to fight against national republics, disarm Czechs (which ended up as a disaster for Bolsheviks), get rid of reactionaries, needing to reestablish rule in most lands. And, of course, taking full control back to Moscow - not under imperial consideration this time, but ideological (which arguably changed later under Stalin).

The other thing is that they didn't intend to let most separating republics go - and often it was Bolshevik support from Moscow that was instrumental to establishing Soviet rule there. They guised it as a popular Soviet uprising, but it wasn't always the case - for example, Bolsheviks in Ukraine had little support, especially outside of the industrialized regions.

In fact, Ukrainian People's republic's goverment composed of Social-democrats, social-federalists and Social-revolutionaries (+left wing polish minority party). It was left-wing, a fact which is majorly overlooked - and the real peril was that Bolsheviks wanted to make one-party rule of themselves and annex the land. They later majorly accepted Ukrainian SSR, became communists and... were executed en masse in 1930s. Such cases.

I don't think anyone excused anything. Polish communists did support the Red Army, while on the other hand nationalists were opposed as you said and viewed it as tyranny. We can not do retrospective judgment, but I agree that Poland would have become a puppet state. A question I don't have an answer to however is if Poland would have become a part of the USSR federation by 1922 with a status similar to Ukraine.

The support for communists, however, wasn't there. And it is not just nationalists - nearly all political parties and societies opposed Bolsheviks.

And yes, they had all reasons to worry about it. The only Soviet republic that wasn't annexed into USSR was Mongolia, for special reasons. Poland was dejure Russian Empire, so there would be little to no issues to annex it in their eyes, especially when USSR wasn't seen as Russian state yet.

That is clearly a fool's game. The Polish nationalists promise something they can't deliver in exchange of getting to annex and polonise Galicia.

In 1919 Ukrainian People's Republic was almost defeated and had not much space to argue.

Such maps are always tricky. As I said, rural areas were mostly Ukrainian, while cities Polish. So you have bigger loosely populated spots painted in green while more concentrated population is not shown so explicitly :)
Anyway, Lwów as a major Polish center was non-negotiable that time.

It is undeniably easy to fall into trappings of one side argument when discussing a matter of a long-standing rivalry there.

The issue of Lviv is same as the rural Ukrainian lands in more Polish parts of land. There was no easy compromise. Closest to it that satisfied was Curzon line + annexation of Lviv with small land corridor.
 
I count Greek Catholic guys speaking Polish as Poles. Why not?
I used generally language pattern as the most representative. Except Polish speaking Jews, not to be accused to overstate Poles. But TBH, I'd rather count them as Poles as well :)
Because in such regions people are often bilingual?

Let's take this one:

Either there was a large scale displacement of population in 1941 (there was, but on this scale) or the Romanian authorities tend to register those who among others speak Romanian as Romanian and the Hungarian authorities registered those who speak among other Hungarian as Hungarian.