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I've translated already many things. I'll end up with what has been so far sent to me today
 
@wfreak1 :
Thanks ! Yes, I thinks myself that I need to improve some things, including my first scripts that they need a new look.

Otherwise I announce that if all goes well, the English version will be ready for next week.

Today I offer two screens in French the next update (on Muslims), scheduled for late August, which will be released hopefully in both languages. I finished adding four Sunni schools of law, the Sufi movement, and the opportunity for Mu'tazilite scholars to become Falasifa (philosopher). New mechanisms around the Caliph and Emir of the Emirs are also completed.

NcGqs9g.jpg


TKp5Fm3.jpg


(i love this money where the Calife is depicted as a Basileus)
 
Days before I was asking a China DLC, but now I see your work and I changed to think there is no need to be a China DLC because I could get a REAL empire here!
Good job, looking forward to English version!

PLUS: Please upload it to an English site
 
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It isn't Cacéres, it is Cáceres :p
(C'est Cáceres, pas Cacéres)
 
I finished the corrections today and I'm just waiting for the last contribution. Unfortunately I have to go Wednesday, so I don't know if I would have access to a computer this week. But this weekend i'm at home.
@Huang : Thanks ! :D

@Pirro : Hahahaha, it's the french "official" translation, isn't my fault. (and
my maternal grandparents come from this region :D).
 
Question- Does the download that's already up include the already translated files or are you waiting till you finish translating all of it? If not, well sorry for bothering you.
 
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Thanks for the answer and sorry for bothering you then.
 
County of Barcelona belongs de jure to the kingdom of France, in 1066. Even if the Count Borell declared himself independant from his liege, Hugues Capet, latter has no brought the promised aid against the Muslims. These lands belongs de jure to the Kingdom of France to Corbeil treaty under the reign of Louis IX. Catalan monasteries chronics, for example, continues to date by years of reign of the king of France. This is useful because this allowed to the Count of Barcelona to protect himself against the claims of the other kings in the peninsula, saying "but i've already a king" ! Of course, when the count of Barcelona seized the crown of Aragon, his intention changed. In this mod, if the king of Aragon directs the Principate, he can link it de jure to his kingdom. But be careful, because the king of France can enforce his rights on his historic counties (county of Roussillon), which belongs to Septimania/Marquis of Gothie.

First: I like your ideas a lot, very good context and nice historical mechanics. I like the direction.

Now, my complain about the passage I quoted:

Corbeil was a sharade, it was something added into the treaty so that James the Conqueror didn't look like a fool for renouncing to all his Occitan inheritance. "Well, at least now we're really independent now!", which was bollocks. I've never heard any count of Barcelona defending himself of Spanish attacks by saying "I already have a king". Half the time the Count was treated as another king, a sovereign lord, in the Spanish political landscape, and when Alfonso crowned himself Emperor of Hispania, Ramon Berenguer bowed and swore loyalty to him. France was apparently ok with it.

Roussillon was not "part of France" or of Septimania either. It was linked to Barcelona by blood and the Count of Roussillon had always been a vassal of the Marquis of Gothia. It was only in the XIth Century with the Feudal Revolution (which is not a myth in the case of Catalonia) that the Catalan Counts claimed the Count of Barcelona was not their prince but just another one. The title Marquis of Gothia was scrapped and forgotten.

But France never (never) made any intent of recovering their de jure lost lands (which then had become independent thanks to de jure drift, in CK terms). Well, not really never; the only time they claimed it was their land was after the signing of Corbeil! After having accepted that Catalonia was not part of France, they used this very excuse to proclaim their intention of crusade against Peter the Great in the late XIIIth Century.

Disclaimer: I'm just stating what's evident in XI and XIIth Centuries' documents.

By the way, it was Regnum Aragonum. Yes, it's bad latin, but hey, I didn't write all those letters or signed all those edicts. The kings of Aragon signed "Iacobus, Rex Aragonum", for example.
 
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English Version down !

Thanks to caocao268, pirro, ApolloX, Burgonde, Yvanoff, tsf4 !

and thank you for all your support! Don't hesitate to post your feedback, in relation to mod or translation !

link : http://jheberg.net/captcha/rirsei45-3/

(Sorry, but i don't know another good upload site WITHOUT register it...)


Excellent work. I feel I'll spend dozens of hours with your mod then...
 
First: I like your ideas a lot, very good context and nice historical mechanics. I like the direction.

Now, my complain about the passage I quoted:

Corbeil was a sharade, it was something added into the treaty so that James the Conqueror didn't look like a fool for renouncing to all his Occitan inheritance. "Well, at least now we're really independent now!", which was bollocks. I've never heard any count of Barcelona defending himself of Spanish attacks by saying "I already have a king". Half the time the Count was treated as another king, a sovereign lord, in the Spanish political landscape, and when Alfonso crowned himself Emperor of Hispania, Ramon Berenguer bowed and swore loyalty to him. France was apparently ok with it.

Roussillon was not "part of France" or of Septimania either. It was linked to Barcelona by blood and the Count of Roussillon had always been a vassal of the Marquis of Gothia. It was only in the XIth Century with the Feudal Revolution (which is not a myth in the case of Catalonia) that the Catalan Counts claimed the Count of Barcelona was not their prince but just another one. The title Marquis of Gothia was scrapped and forgotten.

But France never (never) made any intent of recovering their de jure lost lands (which then had become independent thanks to de jure drift, in CK terms). Well, not really never; the only time they claimed it was their land was after the signing of Corbeil! After having accepted that Catalonia was not part of France, they used this very excuse to proclaim their intention of crusade against Peter the Great in the late XIIIth Century.

Disclaimer: I'm just stating what's evident in XI and XIIth Centuries' documents.

By the way, it was Regnum Aragonum. Yes, it's bad latin, but hey, I didn't write all those letters or signed all those edicts. The kings of Aragon signed "Iacobus, Rex Aragonum", for example.
Technically, Rousillon was part of the gothic Septimania and it was later captured by the arabs during their (almost) unknown invasion of Southern France. It was taken back during the foundation (and conquest) of the "Marca hispanica" by Charlemagne.
And yes, they wanted it several times during the middle ages, and keep in mind that the county of Barcelona was a somewhat independent vassal of France, but a vassal, until the famous marriage.
 
Technically, Rousillon was part of the gothic Septimania and it was later captured by the arabs during their (almost) unknown invasion of Southern France. It was taken back during the foundation (and conquest) of the "Marca hispanica" by Charlemagne. And yes, they wanted it several times during the middle ages

Name some. And remember, they must be before the Treaty of Corbeil. After that it doesn't count.


They wanted it because of its strategical importance, but not because it was theirs de jure. If what you say was true, the Counts of Toulouse and the Trencavel lords that pretended several times to be Dukes of Narbonne (the successors of Gothic Septimania) would have expressed so, or pressed their right, in some of the many, many wars and conflicts between the Counts of Barcelona and the Counts of Toulouse. I'll repeat myself: Roussillon had always been a vassal of the Marquis of Gothia, which was the same as to say the Spanish March when it was formed, which was later monopolised by the Counts of Barcelona, sometimes entitled "Marchio Gothiae" or simply "Marchio".


and keep in mind that the county of Barcelona was a somewhat independent vassal of France, but a vassal, until the famous marriage.

Give me proof of that. You're just repeating what I rebutted.

It wasn't a vassal until the famous marriage, it was a "vassal" until the King of the Franks decided not to honor the protection owed to the Count of Barcelona and the latter decided not to pay homage to him anymore. There was no consequence to that act, so from then on it was a fait accompli. The Counts of Barcelona paid no homage to any French king ever again, no fealty was required of them, no troops, no scutage, no taxes, not even ecclesiastic obedience or symbolic attendance to coronations. The vassalage contract was personal, so when Philippe I didn't recieve homage from Ramon Berenguer I, Borrell's grand-grandson, the vassalage was just not existant. No one commented that the Counts of Barcelona weren't there (no one commented either that Toulouse also had not come). Very few considered they should (and I haven't found evidence of these very few yet).

We could also talk about the nonsense of speaking of proper feudalism and fealty before the year 1000, since feudalism wasn't a thing in the 900's, and that the relation between Borrell of Barcelona and the Franks was that of an hederditary administrator more than that of a vassal, but that is for another discussion.

Give me proof that Barcelona was a vassal of France in any more ways than just on very old paper that no one considered, or else there's just no discussion.
 
So Rousillon wasn't a part of Septimania?
Septimania.png

Oh, and you are right, it wasn't a feudal system yet. The title of count of Barcelona and the "maquis" of the Hispanic mark weren't titles you could simply inherit. The king could give it to someone he liked. And I've said somewhat independent. It was de facto independent, not de jure. Why? Because it was an integral part of the frankish empire, what the coudts did was a betrayal.
And Borrell II did care about Rousillon being part of "Gothia". I found in this book, and he seems to be a somewhat good catalan historian (although a tad nationalist, but it's pretty normal among historians in Catalonia, and that makes them somewhat worse, but that's another story)
 
I would like to say thanks for all the hard work guys! :laugh: